The Government of Andhra Pradesh (AP) will conduct 10th class / SSC half yearly or mid year examinations in December 2014. The examinations will be conducted as per the new syllabus prescribed by the Government for the academic year 2014-15. There will be two papers for each subject like Telugu, English, Maths, General Science (Physical Sciences and Biological Sciences) and Social Studies. Following is the brief description of the model paper for half yearly exams of 10th Class/ SSC / Tenth Class in Andhra Pradesh.
The Government of AP has decided to follow old pattern / scheme of question paper for the academic year 2014-15. But the syllabus and lessons will be as per the new textbooks. The question paper is for 50 marks and the duration is 2-30 hours.
There will be two parts in the question paper. These are Part -A and Part - B. Part consists of descriptive type answers and Part -B is bit paper as like in the previous years.
Part - A:
I: 4 questions with internal choice: 4 X 4 = 16 marks (Essay Type Questions)
II: 6 questions with internal choice: 6 X 2 = 12 marks (Short Answer Type Questions)
III: 7 questions with internal choice: 7 X 1 = 7 marks (Very Short Answer Type Questions)
Part - B:
IV: 20 Multiple Choice Type Questions: 20 X 1/2 = 10 Marks (Objective type questions)
V: 10 Fill in the blank questions: 10 X 1/2 = 5 Marks (Fill in the blanks questions)
We shall upload the model question papers for AP students soon on this blog for the subjects Maths, Science, Social Studies, English, Telugu, Hindi and other subjects. Keep tracking.
Showing posts with label 10th Model Papers. Show all posts
Showing posts with label 10th Model Papers. Show all posts
10th Class Half Yearly Exams Model Papers for Telangana Students 2014-15
The Government of Telangana is gearing up to conduct SSC / 10th Class half yearly examinations in December 2014. The examinations will be conducted as per the new syllabus, new text books and new pattern of question paper released by the SCERT. Here we give some details about 10th Class Model Papers for half yearly exams for Telangana students in Telugu, English, Maths, General Science and Social Studies.
The question paper pattern for half yearly exams will be as follows:
1) Paper -1: For 40 marks
2) Paper - 2 : For 40 marks
1) Section I (Long Answer Type Questions): There will be 4 questions with internal choice. Each question will be for 4 marks thus making it a total of 16 marks
2) Section II (Short Answer Type Questions): The question paper will consists of 6 question with 2 marks for eahc question. Thus the section carries 12 marks
3) Section III (Very Short Answer Type Questions): This section will have 7 questions and each question carries 1 mark. In total, this section carries 7 marks.
4) Section IV: This section will have 10 multiple choice questions and each question carries 1/2 mark. Total marks for this section is 5.
Duration of the question paper is 2-30 hours. Total question paper is for 40 marks. Remaining 10 marks will be allotted for internal assessment. The scheme of the examination apply for all the papers and subjects in Telangana State.
The question paper pattern for half yearly exams will be as follows:
1) Paper -1: For 40 marks
2) Paper - 2 : For 40 marks
1) Section I (Long Answer Type Questions): There will be 4 questions with internal choice. Each question will be for 4 marks thus making it a total of 16 marks
2) Section II (Short Answer Type Questions): The question paper will consists of 6 question with 2 marks for eahc question. Thus the section carries 12 marks
3) Section III (Very Short Answer Type Questions): This section will have 7 questions and each question carries 1 mark. In total, this section carries 7 marks.
4) Section IV: This section will have 10 multiple choice questions and each question carries 1/2 mark. Total marks for this section is 5.
Duration of the question paper is 2-30 hours. Total question paper is for 40 marks. Remaining 10 marks will be allotted for internal assessment. The scheme of the examination apply for all the papers and subjects in Telangana State.
10th Class Model Papers on Eenadu Pratibha and Sakshi Education
The students of Andhra Pradesh and Telangana states are appearing for 10th Class / SSC quarterly examinations for the academic year 2014-15. The examinations are scheduled in the month of October 2014. The students are searching for model question papers of Telugu, English, Hindi, Maths, General Science and Social Studies.
The students are appearing for these exams which will be conducted based on the new syllabus prescribed by both the governments for 10th class students. The question paper pattern has been changed in Telangana but the AP has decided to follow the old question paper scheme / structure.
Considering the requirements of 10th Class students of AP and Telangana, the leading portals eenadupratibha.net and sakshieducation.com have uploaded the model question papers for various subjects of 10th Class.
Students can read and download these model papers. They can also take a print out of the model question papers. The question papers will be useful for quarterly, half yearly and annual examinations as well.
The students are appearing for these exams which will be conducted based on the new syllabus prescribed by both the governments for 10th class students. The question paper pattern has been changed in Telangana but the AP has decided to follow the old question paper scheme / structure.
Considering the requirements of 10th Class students of AP and Telangana, the leading portals eenadupratibha.net and sakshieducation.com have uploaded the model question papers for various subjects of 10th Class.
Students can read and download these model papers. They can also take a print out of the model question papers. The question papers will be useful for quarterly, half yearly and annual examinations as well.
10th Class New Model Papers on Sakshi Education Website - 2014
Leading education website, www.sakshieducation.com (Sakshi Education) is providing 10th class model papers prepared as per the new syllabus. The question papers are available for both the students of Telangana and Andhra Pradesh.
The Sakshi education website has uploaded the 10th class model question papers in both Telugu and English mediums. The model papers are available for Telugu, English, Hindi, Mathematics, General Science and Social Studies subjects.
The Telangana Government has decided to change the pattern of question paper for 10th Class public exams from the academic year 2014-15. The syllabus will remain same for both the states.
The Andhra Pradesh government has decided to follow the old pattern of question papers for the current year. 10th class exams in AP will have weightages as per the previous year exams. There will be Part - B also in all the papers.
The Sakshi education website has uploaded the 10th class model question papers in both Telugu and English mediums. The model papers are available for Telugu, English, Hindi, Mathematics, General Science and Social Studies subjects.
The Telangana Government has decided to change the pattern of question paper for 10th Class public exams from the academic year 2014-15. The syllabus will remain same for both the states.
The Andhra Pradesh government has decided to follow the old pattern of question papers for the current year. 10th class exams in AP will have weightages as per the previous year exams. There will be Part - B also in all the papers.
10th Class Material on Eenadu Pratibha - Model Papers, Question and Answers and Bits
The leading education website, www.eenadupratibha.net (Eenadu Pratibha) is providing vast study material for the 10th class / SSC students of Andhra Pradesh and Telangana States. The material, model papers, study plans and bit banks are provided as per the new syllabus prescribed for 10th Class students.
The study material is available for both English and Telugu medium students of both the states. The model papers are given as per the new exam pattern prescribed for Telangana and AP States.
There have been question and answers to cater the needs of examinations. The model questions and answers and bits will help the students to prepare in advance for the term and final examinations.
Apart from 10th class material, Eenadu Pratibha is also providing study material for Bank exams such as POs, Clerk of IBPS and SBI. The website also come up with material for postal jobs. For more information, see www.eenadupratibha.net.
The study material is available for both English and Telugu medium students of both the states. The model papers are given as per the new exam pattern prescribed for Telangana and AP States.
There have been question and answers to cater the needs of examinations. The model questions and answers and bits will help the students to prepare in advance for the term and final examinations.
Apart from 10th class material, Eenadu Pratibha is also providing study material for Bank exams such as POs, Clerk of IBPS and SBI. The website also come up with material for postal jobs. For more information, see www.eenadupratibha.net.
10th Class Maths New Model Papers for 2015 Exams in AP and Telangana
Here we are giving 10th Class / SSC / Tenth Class model question paper pattern and blue print of weightage for Maths subject. There are two papers for a total of 80 marks. The question papers are prepared by SCERT as per the new syllabus of Maths and new exam pattern for 2014-15 in AP and Telangana States.
SSC Maths Paper 1:
This paper consists of 4 marks, 2 marks and 1 mark questions.
1) 4 Marks Questions: 4 x 4 = 16 Marks
2) 2 Marks Questions: 2 x 6 = 12 Marks
3) 1 Mark Questions: 1 x 7 = 7 Marks
4) Objective type multiple choice questions: 10 x 1/2 = 5 Marks
SSC Maths Paper 2:
This paper also follows the same pattern as mentioned in Paper 1. There will be choice in four marks questions only for both the papers. Students will have to write answers for 4 questions out of 8 questions in four marks section.
Total time for the examination is Hrs 2 - 45 minutes. Out of these, 15 minutes will be given for the reading and understanding of the question paper and remaining time for answering the questions.
SSC Maths Paper 1:
This paper consists of 4 marks, 2 marks and 1 mark questions.
1) 4 Marks Questions: 4 x 4 = 16 Marks
2) 2 Marks Questions: 2 x 6 = 12 Marks
3) 1 Mark Questions: 1 x 7 = 7 Marks
4) Objective type multiple choice questions: 10 x 1/2 = 5 Marks
SSC Maths Paper 2:
This paper also follows the same pattern as mentioned in Paper 1. There will be choice in four marks questions only for both the papers. Students will have to write answers for 4 questions out of 8 questions in four marks section.
Total time for the examination is Hrs 2 - 45 minutes. Out of these, 15 minutes will be given for the reading and understanding of the question paper and remaining time for answering the questions.
10th Class New Syllabus - Project Work Tips
A detailed section set aside in the handbook for discussing various pedagogical aspects project work (see the Unit-III for details of project work). Evaluation of projects and awarding grades Any project involves both individual and group work; therefore, assessment has to take care of both. Let us see, what is the nature of work done by the individuals at various stages:
Individual Writing
1. The tools developed by the individual after the brain storming session
2. The data collected and how it is entered in the notebook
3. Individual report
- Individual Oral performance
- during the brain storming stages
- sharing in the group
- presentation of one part of the report
We can use indicators like the following for the written work
1. Tools: relevance, well-formed structures
2. Data collected: relevance of the data, comprehensiveness, well-formed structures
3. Report: the same indicators mentioned in the academic standards (appropriate title,
objective, scope, relevance- organization-analysis- using well-formed structures- using cohesive devices – coherence – reflections or point of view)
We can use indicators like the following of oral work
- ideas are conveyed
- properly articulated
- contextually relevant language used
The project work carries 6 marks for the written work (Preparation of tools 2M; Collection of data and analysis 2M; Report writing 2M) and 4 marks for the oral
presentation (Responses during the process and presentation of the report). Consider the indicators holistically and award marks accordingly.
Individual Writing
1. The tools developed by the individual after the brain storming session
2. The data collected and how it is entered in the notebook
3. Individual report
- Individual Oral performance
- during the brain storming stages
- sharing in the group
- presentation of one part of the report
We can use indicators like the following for the written work
1. Tools: relevance, well-formed structures
2. Data collected: relevance of the data, comprehensiveness, well-formed structures
3. Report: the same indicators mentioned in the academic standards (appropriate title,
objective, scope, relevance- organization-analysis- using well-formed structures- using cohesive devices – coherence – reflections or point of view)
We can use indicators like the following of oral work
- ideas are conveyed
- properly articulated
- contextually relevant language used
The project work carries 6 marks for the written work (Preparation of tools 2M; Collection of data and analysis 2M; Report writing 2M) and 4 marks for the oral
presentation (Responses during the process and presentation of the report). Consider the indicators holistically and award marks accordingly.
10th Class - Formative Assessment Tips for AP and Telangana Students
Reading is one of the major inputs for language development. If we do not go for some kind of focused interventions to facilitate reading skills, students will
be reading their textbooks only. (Earlier, it so happened that students did not read even the text books, but depended upon question banks).There should be a mechanism
to ensure that students are reading materials other than textbook, develop their own perceptions on such materials and come out with their own reflections on the reading experience both orally and in writing. Since there is also a question of social auditing, we need to have evidences for the performance of the students in this regard. For the oral performance, what the teacher records in her diary / notebook
alone will provide the evidence. In the case of written work the evidence will be available in the notebooks of the students.
How to facilitate reading
The teacher is suggested to provide reading materials such as library books, magazines, articles, newspapers etc. to the learners twice in a formative period
(there are four formative periods in an academic year).
The learners should read the reading materials and write their reflections in their
notebook. (Student should maintain separate notebook to write reflection, project work
and discourses during classroom transaction)
They will also be asked to present their reading experience orally (without looking at
the notebook) before the class. (We may use indicators such as, stating the context, sequencing of ideas, well-formed sentences, proper articulation for assessing the oral performance)
The teacher should check the written notes of the children and award marks for individual writing based on the indicators included the academic standards. (We can go for a few manageable indicators such as: states the context, sequencing of ideas,
well-formed sentences, personal opinions, at least 100-120 words (10-12 sentences)
Both oral and written performance carry 5 marks each. The teacher should maintain a
cumulative record for recording the individual performance. All the oral targeted
discourses can also be considered while awarding 5 marks under oral responses.
The average marks of all performances should be consolidated to 5 marks under observation/ reflections. Don't discourage the learners if they commit some errors in their writing. However, positive feedback may be given.
be reading their textbooks only. (Earlier, it so happened that students did not read even the text books, but depended upon question banks).There should be a mechanism
to ensure that students are reading materials other than textbook, develop their own perceptions on such materials and come out with their own reflections on the reading experience both orally and in writing. Since there is also a question of social auditing, we need to have evidences for the performance of the students in this regard. For the oral performance, what the teacher records in her diary / notebook
alone will provide the evidence. In the case of written work the evidence will be available in the notebooks of the students.
How to facilitate reading
The teacher is suggested to provide reading materials such as library books, magazines, articles, newspapers etc. to the learners twice in a formative period
(there are four formative periods in an academic year).
The learners should read the reading materials and write their reflections in their
notebook. (Student should maintain separate notebook to write reflection, project work
and discourses during classroom transaction)
They will also be asked to present their reading experience orally (without looking at
the notebook) before the class. (We may use indicators such as, stating the context, sequencing of ideas, well-formed sentences, proper articulation for assessing the oral performance)
The teacher should check the written notes of the children and award marks for individual writing based on the indicators included the academic standards. (We can go for a few manageable indicators such as: states the context, sequencing of ideas,
well-formed sentences, personal opinions, at least 100-120 words (10-12 sentences)
Both oral and written performance carry 5 marks each. The teacher should maintain a
cumulative record for recording the individual performance. All the oral targeted
discourses can also be considered while awarding 5 marks under oral responses.
The average marks of all performances should be consolidated to 5 marks under observation/ reflections. Don't discourage the learners if they commit some errors in their writing. However, positive feedback may be given.
10th Class Model Papers - New Syllabus for AP and Telangana 2014-15
The SCERT has released 10th Class / SSC Model question papers that have been prepared as per the new syllabus prescribed by the Governments of Telangana and Andhra Pradesh. Following is the structure and nature of the question pattern and model question paper.
The model question paper is prepared by the experts as per the guidelines given by SCERT and the Government authorities. Following is the brief description of model question paper for SSC / 10th Class / Tenth Class public examinations. This pattern will be implemented from the academic year 2014-15 and public exams in March / April 2015 in
both the states of Andhra Pradesh and Telangana.
Total duration of the 10th class public examination is 2-45 minutes. Out of this, 15 minutes will be alloted for the reading and understanding of the question paper by the student. The students will be given answer sheets after the expiry of these 15 minutes only.
Questions: There will be three types of questions in descriptive part of the question paper. They are 1 mark questions, 2 mark questions and 4 marks questins. In the bits section, there will be objective type multiple choice questions.
Maths Question Papers: There are two papers as like in previous pattern, they are Paper 1 and Paper 2. Each is is for 40 marks that includes both descriptive and objective type questions. The remaining 20 marks will be for formative assessment in the form of internal evaluation by the class teacher concerned.
The model question paper is prepared by the experts as per the guidelines given by SCERT and the Government authorities. Following is the brief description of model question paper for SSC / 10th Class / Tenth Class public examinations. This pattern will be implemented from the academic year 2014-15 and public exams in March / April 2015 in
both the states of Andhra Pradesh and Telangana.
Total duration of the 10th class public examination is 2-45 minutes. Out of this, 15 minutes will be alloted for the reading and understanding of the question paper by the student. The students will be given answer sheets after the expiry of these 15 minutes only.
Questions: There will be three types of questions in descriptive part of the question paper. They are 1 mark questions, 2 mark questions and 4 marks questins. In the bits section, there will be objective type multiple choice questions.
Maths Question Papers: There are two papers as like in previous pattern, they are Paper 1 and Paper 2. Each is is for 40 marks that includes both descriptive and objective type questions. The remaining 20 marks will be for formative assessment in the form of internal evaluation by the class teacher concerned.
10th Class Model Papers - New Exam Pattern and Syllabus 2014-15
The new model papers for SSC / 10th Class students have been released by the SCERT (State Council for Educational Research and Training). The model papers are prepared as per the new syllabus for 10th class from 2014-15 academic year. These model question papers are applicable for the students of both the state of Andhra Pradesh and Telangana.
The Tenth Class new model question papers are available on this site / blog very soon. We will upload the model question papers for all the subjects, Telugu, Hindi, English, Maths, Science and Social Studies. The model question papers will be available for both Telugu and English medium students.
The 10th Class model question papers were frames as per the comprehensive and continuous assessment method of evaluation. The question paper will be for 80 marks and there will be another 20 marks for internal assessment by the teachers at concerned schools.
Government of Andhra Pradesh and Telangana have to take a decision regarding the implementation of new question paper from the academic year 2014-15. There were reports that both the states may defer the implementation of new examination system for this year and may go for it from the year 2015-16. Let us hope the governments will take a decision soon for the benefit of the students.
The Tenth Class new model question papers are available on this site / blog very soon. We will upload the model question papers for all the subjects, Telugu, Hindi, English, Maths, Science and Social Studies. The model question papers will be available for both Telugu and English medium students.
The 10th Class model question papers were frames as per the comprehensive and continuous assessment method of evaluation. The question paper will be for 80 marks and there will be another 20 marks for internal assessment by the teachers at concerned schools.
Government of Andhra Pradesh and Telangana have to take a decision regarding the implementation of new question paper from the academic year 2014-15. There were reports that both the states may defer the implementation of new examination system for this year and may go for it from the year 2015-16. Let us hope the governments will take a decision soon for the benefit of the students.
10th English Model Paper of AP Board
Following is the English Model question paper for the 10th Class Public Examinations to be conducted by Board of Secondary Education, Andhra Pradesh. The question paper is for 50 marks and duration is 2-30 hours. Answers for Part-B of the question paper are given at the end of the questions.
Part - A: Instructions:
1. Answer all the questions under Part - A on a separate answer book.
2. Write answers to the questions under Part - B on the question paper itself.
3. Start answering the questions as you read them.
(1-10): Answer any FIVE of the following questions. Each answer should be in one or two sentences each. (5 × 1 = 5)
1. Why was Antonio ready to borrow money from an enemy like Shylock?
2. What were the evil thoughts in Shylock's mind when Bassanio told him that Antonio would stand guarantee for the borrowed money?
3. Who, according to Nerissa was the most suitable husband for Portia?
4. Why did Jessica and Lorenzo decide to run away?
5. Why did the Prince of Morocco fail to marry Portia?
6. Why did Bassanio decide to go back to Venice soon after his marriage?
7. Portia said that Shylock had the right to a pound of flesh. But she put some conditions. What were they?
8. Why did Shylock call the young lawyer a Daniel?
9. What gift did Bassanio offer the lawyer? Did she accept it?
10. How did Portia use the ring to make fun of her husband?
11. Read the following Passage carefully (5 × 1 = 5)
He had come to Belmont hoping to find his friend and his wife happy together.
But here, they were quarrelling with each other. He was in a way responsible
for this quarrel. Now answer the following questions:
a) Who does 'he' refer to?
b) Two persons are quarrelling with each other. Who are they?
c) What is the quarrel about?
d) Why does he say that he was responsible for the quarrel?
e) When did the quarrel end?
12. Write a story using the hints given below in about 200 words. Divide the
story into two or three paragraphs. (10)
A donkey and a camel - good friends - go to eat cabbages - while eating, donkey
brays - gardener hears - come out -beats camel - camel gets angry with the donkey -
both want to cross a river to eat fruits - camel carries donkey on its back - camel
begins dancing - donkey drowns. (OR)
Flower-seller to king's palace - soldier at the gate - 'cannot go in - give me half of
what you get' - agrees - king likes flowers - 'what do you want?' - 'fifty lashes' - king
surprised - man tells king - gives twenty five lashes to soldier - rewards flowerseller.
13. You hope to pass the SSC Examination with high marks. For higher studies you
want to join a good college in a big city. You have a cousin who an employee
in Bengaluru. Write to him/ her seeking his/ her advice and help. (10)
(OR)
A place of worship in your locality plays film songs on the loud speaker the whole
night. They don't care for the people's protests. Students and old people suffer a lot.
Write a letter to the editor of a local newspaper about this disturbance and ask the
authorities concerned to take necessary steps.
Time: 1 Hour Part -B Marks: 20
Note: Write the answers to the questions in this part on the question paper itself.
Instructions:
i) Use CAPITAL LETTERS while answering the multiple choice questions.
ii) Marks will not be awarded if there is any over-writing or re-writing.
14. Read the following passage carefully.
One night the jailor decided to play a joke on his colleague to find out if, after
so many performances he had managed to learn the contents of the letter by heart.
The curtain went up on the final act of the play and showed the Aristocrat sitting
behind the bars in his dark cell. Just then, the jailor appeared with the letter in his
hands. He entered the cell and presented the letter to the Aristocrat. But the copy he
gave him had not been written out in full as usual. It was simply a blank sheet of
paper. (By Heart)
Now answer the following questions in a word or phrase each: (5 × 1 = 5)
1. What did the jailor want to do one night?
Ans: ........................
2. Who was in the prison?
Ans: ........................
3. Who gave the copy of the letter to the Aristocrat?
Ans: ........................
4. Was it really a letter? What was it?
Ans: ........................
5. Why did the jailor do that?
Ans: ........................
15. Read the following passage carefully.
Books and stories with a moral appealed to Gandhi very much. The noble story of the play 'Shravana Pitrubhakta Nataka' was read by him again and again. It was a drama describing Shravana, the boy who carried his blind parents on his soldiers to holy places. This story of obedience to parents left a strong impression on his mind. Gandhi showed the same obedience to his parents, teachers and elders. He was also attracted to the stories of 'Prahlad' and 'Harischandra'. He liked Prahlad, the boy, who suffered gladly for his faith in God. He respected King Harischandra because he kept his word and sacrificed everything for truth. Stories such as these appealed to his heart.
The great Indian epics, 'The Ramayana' and 'The Mahabharata' were often read out in his house and now and then there were religious discussions with holy men, belonging to Jain, Parsee and Muslim religions. Thus, in his young mind were sown seeds of religious tolerance and equality of all faiths.
Now answer the following questions.
A. Each of the following questions has three choices. Tick ( √ ) the right
answer. (4 × 1 = 4)
1. The story of Shravana teaches .............
a) faith in God ( )
b) sacrifice for truth ( )
c) obedience to parents ( )
2. Shravana carried his blind parents ...........
a) on a bullock cart ( )
b) on his soldiers ( )
c) on vehicles ( )
3. 'The Ramayana' and 'The Mahabharata' are ...........
a) The great Indian epics ( )
b) religious books of all religions ( )
c) religious books of Jain and Parsee religions ( )
4. Gandhiji liked Prahlad, the boy because ...........
a) he suffered for his country ( )
b) he suffered for his parents ( )
c) he suffered to show his faith in God ( )
B. Given below are SIX statements. Three of them are TRUE according to the passage. Find the True statements and write (T) against them in brackets. (3 × 1 = 3)
1. Gandhiji liked books and stories with a moral. ( )
2. Gandhiji liked the story of Prahlad but not the story of Harischandra. ( )
3. Religious discussions with holy men of other religions were conducted in Gandhiji's house. ( )
4. Gandhiji hated a few religions. ( )
5. Seeds of religious tolerance were sown in young Gandhi's mind. ( )
6. Gandhiji never believed in equality of all faiths. ( )
16. Read the following passage carefully.
The trees of the world are fast disappearing. Not only are trees cut down for feeding industries, but forests are burnt down to find land for cultivation. Most people agree that something should be done. Some argue that the Government should pass a law against using wood as fuel for cooking. Most tree lovers think each person in the world should plant one tree every year. In the meanwhile, scientists in the United States are trying to breed a tree that
will be ideal for city life. This tree should have shallow roots. It should have fairly short branches. Branches that reach too high interfere with overheadlines. The ideal tree should not drop fruit on people either. Most importantly, the tree of the future should be so tough that insects cannot harm it. It should resist disease. And it should be able to withstand the effect of air pollution.
Now answer the following questions.
A) What are the two main reasons for the fast disappearance of trees? (2 × 1 = 2)
i) .................................
ii) .................................
B) There are FIVE words in List 'A'. The meaning of four of them are given in List 'B'. Choose the right word from List 'A' to match the meaning in List 'B' and write it in the space provided against each meaning. (4 × 1/2 = 2)
List A: Cultivation - Ideal - Interfere
- Breed - Withstand
List B: i) get in the way ..... --------------
ii) beat without getting hurt ..... --------------
iii) perfect ...... --------------
iv) the growing of crops ...... --------------
C) Complete the following sentences using a word or a phrase each.
(2 × 1/2 = 1)
i) Some people want a law against using wood as.......................
ii) The ideal city tree should have roots that are not ......................
D) The tree of the future should be tough in two ways. What are they? (2 × 1 = 2)
They are:
i) .................................
ii) .................................
E) Answer the following in a word or a phrase each. (2 × 1/2 = 1)
i) Why should the ideal tree have short branches?
Ans: .................................
ii) What do tree lovers want people to do?
Ans: .................................
Answers : PART - B
Q.No. 14.
1. To play joke on his colleague 2. The Aristocrat
3. The jailor. 4. No. It was a sheet of blank paper.
5. To find out if his collegue learned the contents of the letter by heart.
15. A: 1. C 2. B 3. A 4. C
B: 1 - (T) 3 - (T) 5 - (T)
16. A)
i) Cut down for raw materials for industries.
ii) Burnt down to cultivation.
B)
i) interfere ii) withstand
iii) ideal iv) cultivation
C) i) fuel ii) deep
D)
i) it should resist diseases.
ii) it should withstand the effect of air pollution.
E)
i) Not to come in the way of overhead lines.
ii) Each person should plant one tree every year.
Part - A: Instructions:
1. Answer all the questions under Part - A on a separate answer book.
2. Write answers to the questions under Part - B on the question paper itself.
3. Start answering the questions as you read them.
(1-10): Answer any FIVE of the following questions. Each answer should be in one or two sentences each. (5 × 1 = 5)
1. Why was Antonio ready to borrow money from an enemy like Shylock?
2. What were the evil thoughts in Shylock's mind when Bassanio told him that Antonio would stand guarantee for the borrowed money?
3. Who, according to Nerissa was the most suitable husband for Portia?
4. Why did Jessica and Lorenzo decide to run away?
5. Why did the Prince of Morocco fail to marry Portia?
6. Why did Bassanio decide to go back to Venice soon after his marriage?
7. Portia said that Shylock had the right to a pound of flesh. But she put some conditions. What were they?
8. Why did Shylock call the young lawyer a Daniel?
9. What gift did Bassanio offer the lawyer? Did she accept it?
10. How did Portia use the ring to make fun of her husband?
11. Read the following Passage carefully (5 × 1 = 5)
He had come to Belmont hoping to find his friend and his wife happy together.
But here, they were quarrelling with each other. He was in a way responsible
for this quarrel. Now answer the following questions:
a) Who does 'he' refer to?
b) Two persons are quarrelling with each other. Who are they?
c) What is the quarrel about?
d) Why does he say that he was responsible for the quarrel?
e) When did the quarrel end?
12. Write a story using the hints given below in about 200 words. Divide the
story into two or three paragraphs. (10)
A donkey and a camel - good friends - go to eat cabbages - while eating, donkey
brays - gardener hears - come out -beats camel - camel gets angry with the donkey -
both want to cross a river to eat fruits - camel carries donkey on its back - camel
begins dancing - donkey drowns. (OR)
Flower-seller to king's palace - soldier at the gate - 'cannot go in - give me half of
what you get' - agrees - king likes flowers - 'what do you want?' - 'fifty lashes' - king
surprised - man tells king - gives twenty five lashes to soldier - rewards flowerseller.
13. You hope to pass the SSC Examination with high marks. For higher studies you
want to join a good college in a big city. You have a cousin who an employee
in Bengaluru. Write to him/ her seeking his/ her advice and help. (10)
(OR)
A place of worship in your locality plays film songs on the loud speaker the whole
night. They don't care for the people's protests. Students and old people suffer a lot.
Write a letter to the editor of a local newspaper about this disturbance and ask the
authorities concerned to take necessary steps.
Time: 1 Hour Part -B Marks: 20
Note: Write the answers to the questions in this part on the question paper itself.
Instructions:
i) Use CAPITAL LETTERS while answering the multiple choice questions.
ii) Marks will not be awarded if there is any over-writing or re-writing.
14. Read the following passage carefully.
One night the jailor decided to play a joke on his colleague to find out if, after
so many performances he had managed to learn the contents of the letter by heart.
The curtain went up on the final act of the play and showed the Aristocrat sitting
behind the bars in his dark cell. Just then, the jailor appeared with the letter in his
hands. He entered the cell and presented the letter to the Aristocrat. But the copy he
gave him had not been written out in full as usual. It was simply a blank sheet of
paper. (By Heart)
Now answer the following questions in a word or phrase each: (5 × 1 = 5)
1. What did the jailor want to do one night?
Ans: ........................
2. Who was in the prison?
Ans: ........................
3. Who gave the copy of the letter to the Aristocrat?
Ans: ........................
4. Was it really a letter? What was it?
Ans: ........................
5. Why did the jailor do that?
Ans: ........................
15. Read the following passage carefully.
Books and stories with a moral appealed to Gandhi very much. The noble story of the play 'Shravana Pitrubhakta Nataka' was read by him again and again. It was a drama describing Shravana, the boy who carried his blind parents on his soldiers to holy places. This story of obedience to parents left a strong impression on his mind. Gandhi showed the same obedience to his parents, teachers and elders. He was also attracted to the stories of 'Prahlad' and 'Harischandra'. He liked Prahlad, the boy, who suffered gladly for his faith in God. He respected King Harischandra because he kept his word and sacrificed everything for truth. Stories such as these appealed to his heart.
The great Indian epics, 'The Ramayana' and 'The Mahabharata' were often read out in his house and now and then there were religious discussions with holy men, belonging to Jain, Parsee and Muslim religions. Thus, in his young mind were sown seeds of religious tolerance and equality of all faiths.
Now answer the following questions.
A. Each of the following questions has three choices. Tick ( √ ) the right
answer. (4 × 1 = 4)
1. The story of Shravana teaches .............
a) faith in God ( )
b) sacrifice for truth ( )
c) obedience to parents ( )
2. Shravana carried his blind parents ...........
a) on a bullock cart ( )
b) on his soldiers ( )
c) on vehicles ( )
3. 'The Ramayana' and 'The Mahabharata' are ...........
a) The great Indian epics ( )
b) religious books of all religions ( )
c) religious books of Jain and Parsee religions ( )
4. Gandhiji liked Prahlad, the boy because ...........
a) he suffered for his country ( )
b) he suffered for his parents ( )
c) he suffered to show his faith in God ( )
B. Given below are SIX statements. Three of them are TRUE according to the passage. Find the True statements and write (T) against them in brackets. (3 × 1 = 3)
1. Gandhiji liked books and stories with a moral. ( )
2. Gandhiji liked the story of Prahlad but not the story of Harischandra. ( )
3. Religious discussions with holy men of other religions were conducted in Gandhiji's house. ( )
4. Gandhiji hated a few religions. ( )
5. Seeds of religious tolerance were sown in young Gandhi's mind. ( )
6. Gandhiji never believed in equality of all faiths. ( )
16. Read the following passage carefully.
The trees of the world are fast disappearing. Not only are trees cut down for feeding industries, but forests are burnt down to find land for cultivation. Most people agree that something should be done. Some argue that the Government should pass a law against using wood as fuel for cooking. Most tree lovers think each person in the world should plant one tree every year. In the meanwhile, scientists in the United States are trying to breed a tree that
will be ideal for city life. This tree should have shallow roots. It should have fairly short branches. Branches that reach too high interfere with overheadlines. The ideal tree should not drop fruit on people either. Most importantly, the tree of the future should be so tough that insects cannot harm it. It should resist disease. And it should be able to withstand the effect of air pollution.
Now answer the following questions.
A) What are the two main reasons for the fast disappearance of trees? (2 × 1 = 2)
i) .................................
ii) .................................
B) There are FIVE words in List 'A'. The meaning of four of them are given in List 'B'. Choose the right word from List 'A' to match the meaning in List 'B' and write it in the space provided against each meaning. (4 × 1/2 = 2)
List A: Cultivation - Ideal - Interfere
- Breed - Withstand
List B: i) get in the way ..... --------------
ii) beat without getting hurt ..... --------------
iii) perfect ...... --------------
iv) the growing of crops ...... --------------
C) Complete the following sentences using a word or a phrase each.
(2 × 1/2 = 1)
i) Some people want a law against using wood as.......................
ii) The ideal city tree should have roots that are not ......................
D) The tree of the future should be tough in two ways. What are they? (2 × 1 = 2)
They are:
i) .................................
ii) .................................
E) Answer the following in a word or a phrase each. (2 × 1/2 = 1)
i) Why should the ideal tree have short branches?
Ans: .................................
ii) What do tree lovers want people to do?
Ans: .................................
Answers : PART - B
Q.No. 14.
1. To play joke on his colleague 2. The Aristocrat
3. The jailor. 4. No. It was a sheet of blank paper.
5. To find out if his collegue learned the contents of the letter by heart.
15. A: 1. C 2. B 3. A 4. C
B: 1 - (T) 3 - (T) 5 - (T)
16. A)
i) Cut down for raw materials for industries.
ii) Burnt down to cultivation.
B)
i) interfere ii) withstand
iii) ideal iv) cultivation
C) i) fuel ii) deep
D)
i) it should resist diseases.
ii) it should withstand the effect of air pollution.
E)
i) Not to come in the way of overhead lines.
ii) Each person should plant one tree every year.
10th Class English Model Paper for Telugu Medium Students
SSC Public Examinations are fat approaching. Following is the English Model Question Paper for Telugu Medium students of 10th Class / Tenth Class in AP and Telangana states. Duration is 2-30 hours. Maximum marks are 50.
Instructions: 1. Answer all the questions under Part - A on a separate answer
book.
2. Write answers to the questions under Part - B on the question paper itself.
3. Start answering the questions as you read them.
Time: 1 1/2 Hrs. Part - A Marks: 30
(1-10): Answer any FIVE of the following questions. Each
answer should be in one or two sentences each. (5 × 1 = 5)
1. Why was Antonio ready to borrow money from an enemy like Shylock?
2. What were the evil thoughts in Shylock's mind when Bassanio told him that Antonio would stand guarantee for the borrowed money?
3. Who, according to Nerissa was the most suitable husband for Portia?
4. Why did Jessica and Lorenzo decide to run away?
5. Why did the Prince of Morocco fail to marry Portia?
6. Why did Bassanio decide to go back to Venice soon after his marriage?
7. Portia said that Shylock had the right to a pound of flesh. But she put some conditions. What were they?
8. Why did Shylock call the young lawyer a Daniel?
9. What gift did Bassanio offer the lawyer? Did she accept it?
10. How did Portia use the ring to make fun of her husband?
11. Read the following Passage carefully (5 × 1 = 5)
He had come to Belmont hoping to find his friend and his wife
happy together. But here, they were quarrelling with each other.
He was in a way responsible for this quarrel.
Now answer the following questions:
a) Who does 'he' refer to?
b) Two persons are quarrelling with each other. Who are they?
c) What is the quarrel about?
d) Why does he say that he was responsible for the quarrel?
e) When did the quarrel end?
12. Write a story using the hints given below in about 200 words. Divide the story into two or three paragraphs. (10)
A donkey and a camel − good friends − go to eat cabbages − while eating, donkey brays
− gardener hears − come out − beats camel − camel gets angry with the donkey −
both want to cross a river to eat fruits − camel carries donkey on its back −
camel begins dancing − donkey drowns.
(OR)
Flower-seller to king's palace − soldier at the gate − 'cannot go in − give me half of what you get' − agrees − king likes flowers − 'what do you want?' − 'fifty lashes'
− king surprised − man tells king − gives twenty five lashes to soldier − rewards flower- seller.
13. You hope to pass the SSC Examination with high marks. For higher studies you want to join a good college in a big city. You have a cousin who an employee in Bengaluru. Write to him/ her seeking his/ her advice and help. (10)
(OR)
Aplace of worship in your locality plays film songs on the loud speaker the whole night. They don't care for the people's protests. Students and old people suffer a lot. Write a letter to the editor of a local newspaper about this disturbance and ask the authorities concerned to take necessary steps.
Time: 1 Hr. Part - B - Marks: 20
Note:
Write the answers to the questions in this part on the question paper itself.
Instructions:
i) Use CAPITAL LETTERS while answering the multiple choice questions.
ii) Marks will not be awarded if there is any over-writing or re-writing.
14. Read the following passage carefully.
One night the jailor decided to play a joke on his colleague to find out if, after so many performances he had managed to learn the contents of the letter by heart. The curtain went up on the final act of the play and showed the Aristocrat sitting behind the bars in his dark cell. Just then, the jailor appeared with the letter in his hands. He entered the cell and presented the letter to the Aristocrat. But the copy he gave him had not been written out in full as usual. It was simply a blank sheet of paper. (By Heart)
Now answer the following questions in a word or phrase each: (5×1 = 5)
1. What did the jailor want to do one night?
Ans: ........................
2. Who was in the prison?
Ans: ........................
3. Who gave the copy of the letter to the Aristocrat?
Ans: ........................
4. Was it really a letter? What was it?
Ans: ........................
5. Why did the jailor do that?
Ans: ........................
15. Read the following passage carefully.
Books and stories with a moral appealed to Gandhi very much. The noble story of the play 'Shravana Pitrubhakta Nataka' was read by him again and again. It was a drama describing Shravana, the boy who carried his blind parents on his soldiers to holy places. This story of obedience to parents left a strong impression on his mind. Gandhi showed the same obedience to his parents, teachers and elders. He was also attracted to the stories of 'Prahlad' and 'Harischandra'. He liked Prahlad, the boy,
who suffered gladly for his faith in God. He respected King Harischandra because he kept his word and sacrificed every- thing for truth. Stories such as these appealed to his heart. The great Indian epics, 'The Ramayana' and 'The Mahabharata' were often read out in his house and now and then there were religious discussions with holy men, belonging to Jain, Parsee and Muslim religions. Thus, in his young mind
were sown seeds of religious tolerance and equality of all faiths.
Now answer the following questions.
A. Each of the following questions has three choices. Tick ( ✓ ) the right answer.
(4 × 1 = 4)
1. The story of Shravana teaches .............
a) faith in God ( )
b) sacrifice for truth ( )
c) obedience to parents ( )
2. Shravana carried his blind parents ...........
a) on a bullock cart ( )
b) on his soldiers ( )
c) on vehicles ( )
3. 'The Ramayana' and 'The Mahabharata' are ...........
a) The great Indian epics ( )
b) religious books of all religions ( )
c) religious books of Jain and Parsee religions ( )
4. Gandhiji liked Prahlad, the boy because ...........
a) he suffered for his country ( )
b) he suffered for his parents ( )
c) he suffered to show his faith in God ( )
B. Given below are SIX statements. Three of them are TRUE according to the passage. Find the True statements and write (T) against them in brackets. (3 × 1 = 3)
1. Gandhiji liked books and stories with a moral. ( )
2. Gandhiji liked the story of Prahlad but not the story of Harischandra. ( )
3. Religious discussions with holy men of other religions were conducted in Gandhiji's house. ( )
4. Gandhiji hated a few religions. ( )
5. Seeds of religious tolerance were sown in young Gandhi's mind. ( )
6. Gandhiji never believed in equality of all faiths. ( )
16. Read the following passage carefully.
The trees of the world are fast disappearing. Not only are trees cut down for feeding industries, but forests are burnt down to find land for cultivation. Most people agree that something should be done. Some argue that the Government should
pass a law against using wood as fuel for cooking. Most tree lovers think each person in the world should plant one tree every year.
In the meanwhile, scientists in the United States are trying to breed a tree that will be ideal for city life. This tree should have shallow roots. It should have fairly short branches. Branches that reach too high interfere with overheadlines. The ideal tree should not drop fruit on people either.
Most importantly, the tree of the future should be so tough that insects cannot harm it. It should resist disease. And it should be able to withstand the effect of air pollution.
Now answer the following questions.
A) What are the two main reasons for the fast disappearance of trees?
(2 x 1 = 2)
i) .................................
ii) .................................
B) There are FIVE words in List 'A'. The meaning of four of them are given in List 'B'. Choose the right word from List 'A' to match the meaning in List 'B' and write it in the space provided against each meaning. 4 x 1/2 = 2
List A:
Cultivation
Ideal
Interfere
Breed
Withstand
List B:
i) get in the way ..... --------------
ii) beat without getting hurt ..... --------------
iii) perfect ...... --------------
iv) the growing of crops ...... --------------
C) Complete the following sentences using a word or a phrase each. (2× 1/2 =1)
i) Some people want a law against using wood as.......................
ii) The ideal city tree should have roots that are not ......................
D) The tree of the future should be tough in two ways. What are they?
They are:
i) .................................
ii) .................................
E) Answer the following in a word or a phrase each.
i) Why should the ideal tree have short branches?
Ans: .................................
ii) What do tree lovers want people to do?
Ans: ................................
Answers - Part - B
Q.No. 14.
1. To play joke on his colleague
2. The Aristocrat 3. The jailor.
4. No. It was a sheet of blank paper.
5. To find out if his collegue learned the contents of the
letter by heart.
15. A: 1.C
2. B
3. A
4. C
B: 1 - (T)
3 - (T)
5 - (T)
16. A)
i) Cut down for raw materials for industries.
ii) Burnt down to cultivation.
B) i) interfere ii) withstand iii) ideal iv) cultivation
C) i) fuel ii) deep
D) i) it should resist diseases.
ii) it should withstand the effect of air pollution.
E) i) Not to come in the way of overhead lines.
ii) Each person should plant one tree every year.
Instructions: 1. Answer all the questions under Part - A on a separate answer
book.
2. Write answers to the questions under Part - B on the question paper itself.
3. Start answering the questions as you read them.
Time: 1 1/2 Hrs. Part - A Marks: 30
(1-10): Answer any FIVE of the following questions. Each
answer should be in one or two sentences each. (5 × 1 = 5)
1. Why was Antonio ready to borrow money from an enemy like Shylock?
2. What were the evil thoughts in Shylock's mind when Bassanio told him that Antonio would stand guarantee for the borrowed money?
3. Who, according to Nerissa was the most suitable husband for Portia?
4. Why did Jessica and Lorenzo decide to run away?
5. Why did the Prince of Morocco fail to marry Portia?
6. Why did Bassanio decide to go back to Venice soon after his marriage?
7. Portia said that Shylock had the right to a pound of flesh. But she put some conditions. What were they?
8. Why did Shylock call the young lawyer a Daniel?
9. What gift did Bassanio offer the lawyer? Did she accept it?
10. How did Portia use the ring to make fun of her husband?
11. Read the following Passage carefully (5 × 1 = 5)
He had come to Belmont hoping to find his friend and his wife
happy together. But here, they were quarrelling with each other.
He was in a way responsible for this quarrel.
Now answer the following questions:
a) Who does 'he' refer to?
b) Two persons are quarrelling with each other. Who are they?
c) What is the quarrel about?
d) Why does he say that he was responsible for the quarrel?
e) When did the quarrel end?
12. Write a story using the hints given below in about 200 words. Divide the story into two or three paragraphs. (10)
A donkey and a camel − good friends − go to eat cabbages − while eating, donkey brays
− gardener hears − come out − beats camel − camel gets angry with the donkey −
both want to cross a river to eat fruits − camel carries donkey on its back −
camel begins dancing − donkey drowns.
(OR)
Flower-seller to king's palace − soldier at the gate − 'cannot go in − give me half of what you get' − agrees − king likes flowers − 'what do you want?' − 'fifty lashes'
− king surprised − man tells king − gives twenty five lashes to soldier − rewards flower- seller.
13. You hope to pass the SSC Examination with high marks. For higher studies you want to join a good college in a big city. You have a cousin who an employee in Bengaluru. Write to him/ her seeking his/ her advice and help. (10)
(OR)
Aplace of worship in your locality plays film songs on the loud speaker the whole night. They don't care for the people's protests. Students and old people suffer a lot. Write a letter to the editor of a local newspaper about this disturbance and ask the authorities concerned to take necessary steps.
Time: 1 Hr. Part - B - Marks: 20
Note:
Write the answers to the questions in this part on the question paper itself.
Instructions:
i) Use CAPITAL LETTERS while answering the multiple choice questions.
ii) Marks will not be awarded if there is any over-writing or re-writing.
14. Read the following passage carefully.
One night the jailor decided to play a joke on his colleague to find out if, after so many performances he had managed to learn the contents of the letter by heart. The curtain went up on the final act of the play and showed the Aristocrat sitting behind the bars in his dark cell. Just then, the jailor appeared with the letter in his hands. He entered the cell and presented the letter to the Aristocrat. But the copy he gave him had not been written out in full as usual. It was simply a blank sheet of paper. (By Heart)
Now answer the following questions in a word or phrase each: (5×1 = 5)
1. What did the jailor want to do one night?
Ans: ........................
2. Who was in the prison?
Ans: ........................
3. Who gave the copy of the letter to the Aristocrat?
Ans: ........................
4. Was it really a letter? What was it?
Ans: ........................
5. Why did the jailor do that?
Ans: ........................
15. Read the following passage carefully.
Books and stories with a moral appealed to Gandhi very much. The noble story of the play 'Shravana Pitrubhakta Nataka' was read by him again and again. It was a drama describing Shravana, the boy who carried his blind parents on his soldiers to holy places. This story of obedience to parents left a strong impression on his mind. Gandhi showed the same obedience to his parents, teachers and elders. He was also attracted to the stories of 'Prahlad' and 'Harischandra'. He liked Prahlad, the boy,
who suffered gladly for his faith in God. He respected King Harischandra because he kept his word and sacrificed every- thing for truth. Stories such as these appealed to his heart. The great Indian epics, 'The Ramayana' and 'The Mahabharata' were often read out in his house and now and then there were religious discussions with holy men, belonging to Jain, Parsee and Muslim religions. Thus, in his young mind
were sown seeds of religious tolerance and equality of all faiths.
Now answer the following questions.
A. Each of the following questions has three choices. Tick ( ✓ ) the right answer.
(4 × 1 = 4)
1. The story of Shravana teaches .............
a) faith in God ( )
b) sacrifice for truth ( )
c) obedience to parents ( )
2. Shravana carried his blind parents ...........
a) on a bullock cart ( )
b) on his soldiers ( )
c) on vehicles ( )
3. 'The Ramayana' and 'The Mahabharata' are ...........
a) The great Indian epics ( )
b) religious books of all religions ( )
c) religious books of Jain and Parsee religions ( )
4. Gandhiji liked Prahlad, the boy because ...........
a) he suffered for his country ( )
b) he suffered for his parents ( )
c) he suffered to show his faith in God ( )
B. Given below are SIX statements. Three of them are TRUE according to the passage. Find the True statements and write (T) against them in brackets. (3 × 1 = 3)
1. Gandhiji liked books and stories with a moral. ( )
2. Gandhiji liked the story of Prahlad but not the story of Harischandra. ( )
3. Religious discussions with holy men of other religions were conducted in Gandhiji's house. ( )
4. Gandhiji hated a few religions. ( )
5. Seeds of religious tolerance were sown in young Gandhi's mind. ( )
6. Gandhiji never believed in equality of all faiths. ( )
16. Read the following passage carefully.
The trees of the world are fast disappearing. Not only are trees cut down for feeding industries, but forests are burnt down to find land for cultivation. Most people agree that something should be done. Some argue that the Government should
pass a law against using wood as fuel for cooking. Most tree lovers think each person in the world should plant one tree every year.
In the meanwhile, scientists in the United States are trying to breed a tree that will be ideal for city life. This tree should have shallow roots. It should have fairly short branches. Branches that reach too high interfere with overheadlines. The ideal tree should not drop fruit on people either.
Most importantly, the tree of the future should be so tough that insects cannot harm it. It should resist disease. And it should be able to withstand the effect of air pollution.
Now answer the following questions.
A) What are the two main reasons for the fast disappearance of trees?
(2 x 1 = 2)
i) .................................
ii) .................................
B) There are FIVE words in List 'A'. The meaning of four of them are given in List 'B'. Choose the right word from List 'A' to match the meaning in List 'B' and write it in the space provided against each meaning. 4 x 1/2 = 2
List A:
Cultivation
Ideal
Interfere
Breed
Withstand
List B:
i) get in the way ..... --------------
ii) beat without getting hurt ..... --------------
iii) perfect ...... --------------
iv) the growing of crops ...... --------------
C) Complete the following sentences using a word or a phrase each. (2× 1/2 =1)
i) Some people want a law against using wood as.......................
ii) The ideal city tree should have roots that are not ......................
D) The tree of the future should be tough in two ways. What are they?
They are:
i) .................................
ii) .................................
E) Answer the following in a word or a phrase each.
i) Why should the ideal tree have short branches?
Ans: .................................
ii) What do tree lovers want people to do?
Ans: ................................
Answers - Part - B
Q.No. 14.
1. To play joke on his colleague
2. The Aristocrat 3. The jailor.
4. No. It was a sheet of blank paper.
5. To find out if his collegue learned the contents of the
letter by heart.
15. A: 1.C
2. B
3. A
4. C
B: 1 - (T)
3 - (T)
5 - (T)
16. A)
i) Cut down for raw materials for industries.
ii) Burnt down to cultivation.
B) i) interfere ii) withstand iii) ideal iv) cultivation
C) i) fuel ii) deep
D) i) it should resist diseases.
ii) it should withstand the effect of air pollution.
E) i) Not to come in the way of overhead lines.
ii) Each person should plant one tree every year.
10th Class General Science - Biology Model Paper 2
10th Class Public Examinations for AP students are fast approaching. Here we are giving model question paper for General Science Paper - II (Biology). The question paper is for 50 marks and the duration of the exam is 2-30 minutes.
GENERAL SCIENCE PAPER - II : MODEL PAPER (English Medium)
Time: 2 1/2 Hours PARTS A & B Max. Marks: 50
Instructions:
1) Answer the questions under Part 'A' on a separate answer book.
2) Write the answers to the questions under 'Part B' on the question paper itself and
attach it to the answer book of Part 'A'.
Time: 2 Hours : Part - A : Marks: 35
SECTION - I
Note: 1) Answer any FOUR questions from each following.
2) Each question carries ONE marks. 4 × 1 = 4
1. What is Reaction centre?
2. What Nissels granules? Where are they located?
3. What is "Totipotency"?
4. What is "Fluorosis"?
5. Expand NIN.
6. What is Green House Effect?
SECTION - II
Note: 1) Answer ANY FIVE questions, choosing at least TWO from each group A
and B.
2) Each question carries TWO marks. 5 × 2 = 10
GROUP - A
7. Why there is more pressure in arteries than in veins?
8. Define photosynthesis. Write an equation for photosynthesis showing all the
requirements and the products formed.
9. What are plant growth substances? Give examples.
10. Why is damage in certain diseases like polio permanent?
GROUP - B
11. What is embryo rescue? When is this method followed?
12. What prevents self fertilization in Earthworm?
13. Describe the duties of village health guide?
14. What are the main reasons for Global Warming?
SECTION - III
Note: 1) Answer any four questions, choosing at least two from each group A and B.
2) Each question carries four marks. 4 × 4 =16
GROUP - A
15. How can we show that heat is liberated during respiration?
16. What are the differences between RBC and WBC?
17. Write in brief about Ivon Pavlov's experiment on dog to demonstrate
conditioned reflexes.
18. What is the importance of pituitary gland in the body? Mention the hormones
and their functions.
GROUP - B
19. What are the advantages of cell and tissue culture?
20. Why life skills are necessary for everyone to face the challenges of life
especially in the context of HIV, AIDS? Which life skills would you practice?
21. Describe the changes in the life cycle of malarial parasite, that occurs in
mosquito.
22. Mention the symptoms of fracture and the first aid for fractures.
SECTION - IV
Note: 1) Answer any ONE of the following questions.
2) This question carries FIVE marks. 1 × 5 = 5
23. Draw a neat labelled diagram of transverse section of leaf.
24. Draw a neat labelled diagram of longitudinal section of Datura leaf.
Time: 30 Minutes - Part : B - Marks: 15
Note: 1) Answer ALL the questions.
2) Each question carries 1/2 mark.
3) Candidates must use the capital letters while answering the multiple choice
questions.
4) Marks will NOT be awarded in case of any overwriting or re-writing or
erased answers.
I. Write the 'CAPITAL LETTER' (A, B, C, D) choosing the correct answer in the
bracket provided against each question. (10 × 1−2 = 5)
1. Plants are green because they ( )
A) refract green light B) absorb green light
C) reflect green light D) do not absorb UV light
2. Conversion of glucose to pyruvic acid yields a net gain of ( )
A) 2 molecules of ATP B) 36 molecules of ATP
C) 4 molecules of ATP D) 38 molecules of ATP
3. The cartilagenous rings that support the trachea of man are in the shape of
( )
A) J B) D C) O D) C
4. Apical dominance means ( )
A) Ferminal bud growing nonstop.
B) Terminal bud suppressing growth of lateral buds.
C) Removal of the apex of the stem.
D) Terminal and lateral branches grow equally.
5. Differentiation of callus tissue into different parts in tissue culture method is on
account of the choice of ( )
A) cells from parent plant
B) plant growth substances in the medium
C) containers used for the purpose
D) tissue selection from the parent plant
6. Endosperm nucleus forms from the fusion of male gamete with ( )
A) Egg B) Secondary nucleus
C) Zygote D) Synergids
7. Milt of frog consists of ( )
A) ova B) sperm mother cells
C) spermatozoa D) both ova and spermatozoa
8. When more than 20% of the body weight is due to fat the person is suffering
from ( )
A) Marasmus B) Kwashiorkor C) Scurvey D) Obesity
9. Inflammation of lymph vessels and lymph glands result in disease known as
( )
A) Malaria B) Filaria C) Encephalitis D) Hepatitis
10. "Wild Life Protection Act" was enacted in ( )
A) 1962 B) 1972 C) 1982 D) 1992
II. Fill in the blanks with suitable words: (10 × 1/2 = 5)
11. The end products of respiration are ....... substances for photosynthesis.
12. The largest artery in the body of man is .......
13. .... is the liquid connective tissue of the body.
14. A single circuit heart is found in .....
15. Adrenalin is secreted by the ...... of adrenal.
16. The largest part in the brain is .....
17. In earthworm, fertilization occurs in ......
18. Hormones that control menstrual cycle are secreted by ......
19. "Nature gives us resources to meet our needs, but not our greed", who said this?
20. The main reason for the extinction of sea organisms is .......
III. Match the following:
GROUP-A GROUP- B (5 × 1/2= 2 1/2 )
21. Glycosis ( ) a) Amoeba
22. Life span of RBC ( ) b) Pyruvic acid
23. Diffusion ( ) c) Ovulation
24. Totipotency ( ) d) Placenta
25. Ovum ( ) e) 120 days
f) respiration
g) New plant from a single cell
GROUP-A GROUP-B (5 × 1/2 = 2 1/2 )
26. Synergids ( ) a) Skeletal degradation
27. Anaemia ( ) b) First-aid
28. Esmarch ( ) c) Vitamins
29. Fluoride ( ) d) Helper cells
30. Biopiracy ( ) e) Fracture
f) Iron
g) Stealthy acquisition
GENERAL SCIENCE PAPER - II : MODEL PAPER (English Medium)
Time: 2 1/2 Hours PARTS A & B Max. Marks: 50
Instructions:
1) Answer the questions under Part 'A' on a separate answer book.
2) Write the answers to the questions under 'Part B' on the question paper itself and
attach it to the answer book of Part 'A'.
Time: 2 Hours : Part - A : Marks: 35
SECTION - I
Note: 1) Answer any FOUR questions from each following.
2) Each question carries ONE marks. 4 × 1 = 4
1. What is Reaction centre?
2. What Nissels granules? Where are they located?
3. What is "Totipotency"?
4. What is "Fluorosis"?
5. Expand NIN.
6. What is Green House Effect?
SECTION - II
Note: 1) Answer ANY FIVE questions, choosing at least TWO from each group A
and B.
2) Each question carries TWO marks. 5 × 2 = 10
GROUP - A
7. Why there is more pressure in arteries than in veins?
8. Define photosynthesis. Write an equation for photosynthesis showing all the
requirements and the products formed.
9. What are plant growth substances? Give examples.
10. Why is damage in certain diseases like polio permanent?
GROUP - B
11. What is embryo rescue? When is this method followed?
12. What prevents self fertilization in Earthworm?
13. Describe the duties of village health guide?
14. What are the main reasons for Global Warming?
SECTION - III
Note: 1) Answer any four questions, choosing at least two from each group A and B.
2) Each question carries four marks. 4 × 4 =16
GROUP - A
15. How can we show that heat is liberated during respiration?
16. What are the differences between RBC and WBC?
17. Write in brief about Ivon Pavlov's experiment on dog to demonstrate
conditioned reflexes.
18. What is the importance of pituitary gland in the body? Mention the hormones
and their functions.
GROUP - B
19. What are the advantages of cell and tissue culture?
20. Why life skills are necessary for everyone to face the challenges of life
especially in the context of HIV, AIDS? Which life skills would you practice?
21. Describe the changes in the life cycle of malarial parasite, that occurs in
mosquito.
22. Mention the symptoms of fracture and the first aid for fractures.
SECTION - IV
Note: 1) Answer any ONE of the following questions.
2) This question carries FIVE marks. 1 × 5 = 5
23. Draw a neat labelled diagram of transverse section of leaf.
24. Draw a neat labelled diagram of longitudinal section of Datura leaf.
Time: 30 Minutes - Part : B - Marks: 15
Note: 1) Answer ALL the questions.
2) Each question carries 1/2 mark.
3) Candidates must use the capital letters while answering the multiple choice
questions.
4) Marks will NOT be awarded in case of any overwriting or re-writing or
erased answers.
I. Write the 'CAPITAL LETTER' (A, B, C, D) choosing the correct answer in the
bracket provided against each question. (10 × 1−2 = 5)
1. Plants are green because they ( )
A) refract green light B) absorb green light
C) reflect green light D) do not absorb UV light
2. Conversion of glucose to pyruvic acid yields a net gain of ( )
A) 2 molecules of ATP B) 36 molecules of ATP
C) 4 molecules of ATP D) 38 molecules of ATP
3. The cartilagenous rings that support the trachea of man are in the shape of
( )
A) J B) D C) O D) C
4. Apical dominance means ( )
A) Ferminal bud growing nonstop.
B) Terminal bud suppressing growth of lateral buds.
C) Removal of the apex of the stem.
D) Terminal and lateral branches grow equally.
5. Differentiation of callus tissue into different parts in tissue culture method is on
account of the choice of ( )
A) cells from parent plant
B) plant growth substances in the medium
C) containers used for the purpose
D) tissue selection from the parent plant
6. Endosperm nucleus forms from the fusion of male gamete with ( )
A) Egg B) Secondary nucleus
C) Zygote D) Synergids
7. Milt of frog consists of ( )
A) ova B) sperm mother cells
C) spermatozoa D) both ova and spermatozoa
8. When more than 20% of the body weight is due to fat the person is suffering
from ( )
A) Marasmus B) Kwashiorkor C) Scurvey D) Obesity
9. Inflammation of lymph vessels and lymph glands result in disease known as
( )
A) Malaria B) Filaria C) Encephalitis D) Hepatitis
10. "Wild Life Protection Act" was enacted in ( )
A) 1962 B) 1972 C) 1982 D) 1992
II. Fill in the blanks with suitable words: (10 × 1/2 = 5)
11. The end products of respiration are ....... substances for photosynthesis.
12. The largest artery in the body of man is .......
13. .... is the liquid connective tissue of the body.
14. A single circuit heart is found in .....
15. Adrenalin is secreted by the ...... of adrenal.
16. The largest part in the brain is .....
17. In earthworm, fertilization occurs in ......
18. Hormones that control menstrual cycle are secreted by ......
19. "Nature gives us resources to meet our needs, but not our greed", who said this?
20. The main reason for the extinction of sea organisms is .......
III. Match the following:
GROUP-A GROUP- B (5 × 1/2= 2 1/2 )
21. Glycosis ( ) a) Amoeba
22. Life span of RBC ( ) b) Pyruvic acid
23. Diffusion ( ) c) Ovulation
24. Totipotency ( ) d) Placenta
25. Ovum ( ) e) 120 days
f) respiration
g) New plant from a single cell
GROUP-A GROUP-B (5 × 1/2 = 2 1/2 )
26. Synergids ( ) a) Skeletal degradation
27. Anaemia ( ) b) First-aid
28. Esmarch ( ) c) Vitamins
29. Fluoride ( ) d) Helper cells
30. Biopiracy ( ) e) Fracture
f) Iron
g) Stealthy acquisition
10th Exams Physical Sciences Model Paper
Following is the 10th Class General Science Model Paper 1 (Physical Sciences) for the public exams to be conducted by Board of Secondary Education, Andhra Pradesh. This model paper is for English Medium students.
Time: 2 1/2 Hours PARTS A & B Max. Marks: 50
Instructions:
1) Answer the questions under Part 'A' on a separate answer book.
2) Write the answers to the questions under 'Part B' on the question paper itself and
attach it to the answer book of Part 'A'.
Time: 2 Hours Part - A Marks: 35
SECTION - I
Note: 1) Answer any FIVE questions, choosing atleast TWO from each group.
2) Each question carries TWO marks. 5 × 2 = 10
GROUP - A
1. Distinguish between inertial and Non-inertial frames of reference.
2. What are the characteristics of a simple harmonic motion?
3. Mention the applications of electrolysis.
4. Draw the block diagram of a computer.
GROUP - B
5. Write the electronic configuration of
a) Chromium b) Sodium
6. Sketch the structure of Paracetamol drug molecules.
7. Calculate the pH value of 0.001 M HCl.
8. How is Tollen's reagent prepared? How is glucose tested with it?
SECTION - II
Note: 1) Answer any FOUR of the following SIX questions.
2) Each question carries ONE mark. 4 × 1 = 4
9. What is a hole?
10. State the law of radio active disintegration.
11. Why 'g' value decreases when we go deep into the earth?
12. Define a strong acid.
13. What are primary nutrients?
14. How many 'm' values are possible for l = 3?
SECTION - III
Note: 1) Answer any FOUR questions, choosing at least TWO from each group.
2) Each question carries FOUR marks. 4 × 4 = 16
GROUP - A
15. Mention any eight uses of laser of light in the fields of medicine, industry, in
space science and defence.
16. What is the principle of a Nuclear Reactor? How is chain reaction controlled in
a Nuclear Reactor?
17. State the properties and uses of a junction diode.
18. A house is fitted with 10 lamps of 60 watts each. If each lamp burns for 5 hours a
day on an average, find the cost of consumption in a month of 30 days at 80 paise
for unit.
GROUP - B
19. Explain the formation of a coordinate covalent bond.
20. Explain the following.
a) Representative elements b) s - block elements
c) p - block elements d) Transition elements
21. Define ionisation energy and mention the factors that influence ionisation
energy.
22. What are the sources of oils and fats? Mention three industrial uses of oil?
SECTION - IV
Note: 1) Answer any ONE of the following questions.
2) This question carries FIVE marks. 1 × 5 = 5
23. Draw the diagrams showing negative zero error and positive zero error of
screw gauge.
24. Draw the diagram showing the parts of sugar industry.
Time: 30 Minutes Part -B Marks: 15
Note: 1) Answer ALL questions.
2) Each question carries mark.
3) Candidates must use the CAPITAL LETTERS while answering the multiple choice questions.
4) Marks will NOT be awarded in case of any overwriting or re-writing or erased answers.
I. Pick up the correct answer and fill in the brackets with the CAPITAL
LETTER of the correct answer chosen. (10 × 1−2 = 5)
1. According to Kepler concept, the orbit of a planet around the Sun is ( )
A) circular B) elliptical C) rectangular D) linear
2. In the following, which is not a diamagnetic substance? ( )
A) Air B) Nickel C) Water D) Bismuth
3. If the distance between a node and the next antinode in a stationary wave is
10 cms, then the wavelength is ( )
A) 5 cm B) 20 cm C) 40 cm D) 10 cm
4. A solid angle is measured in..... ( )
A) Candela B) Lumen C) Steradians D) Radians
5. In p type Semi-conductors, majority carriers are ( )
A) Electrons B) Holes
C) Ions D) Electrons and Holes
6. Among 3p, 4s, 3d and 4p the orbital having the least energy is ( )
A) 4s B) 3p C) 3d D) 4p
7. CaO is ( )
A) Acidic B) Basic C) Neutral D) Amphoteric
8. Drugs which act on blood circulation are ( )
A) hormones B) vitamins C) cardio-vascular D) antibiotics
9. The name of C6H14 is.... ( )
A) Hexane B) Octane C) Methane D) Propane
10. 10 gms of Na2CO3 is dissolved in 190 gms. of water. The W% of solution is
( )
A) 20 B) 5 C) 10 D) 2.5
II. Fill in the blanks. (10 × 1−2 = 5)
11. The value of 'G' is ___________.
12. When a body is projected upwards, the acceleration due to gravity is taken as
__________.
13. Radio waves have wave lengths from ______ to _______.
14. The process of achieving population inversion is called ____.
15. Magnetic field induction on the equatorial line is given by B = __________
Newtons/ Ampere-meter.
16. NH3 has _____________ Shape.
17. The body fluid whose pH is greater than ''7'' is _______.
18. The process of cooling glass is called __________.
19. The solid Carbon dioxide is called as ___________.
20. ___________ hold materials together by surface attachment.
III. Match the following. (10 × 1−2 = 5)
Physics
i) Group- A Group - B
21. Deuterium ( ) A) 1.66 × 10-12 Joules
22. Mass of Proton ( ) B) 1.0087 amu
23. Mass of Neutron ( ) C) 9.8 m/sec2
24. Acceleration due to gravity ( ) D) 4.2 joules
25. 1 calorie ( ) E) 21H
F) 1.0078 amu
G) 931.5 Me V
Chemistry
ii) Group - A Group - B
26. Carbon tetrachloride ( ) A) CHCl3
27. Butane ( ) B) CH4
28. Methane ( ) C) C6H6
29. Chloroform ( ) D) CCl4
30. Benzene ( ) E) C4H10
F) C2H2
G) CH3
Time: 2 1/2 Hours PARTS A & B Max. Marks: 50
Instructions:
1) Answer the questions under Part 'A' on a separate answer book.
2) Write the answers to the questions under 'Part B' on the question paper itself and
attach it to the answer book of Part 'A'.
Time: 2 Hours Part - A Marks: 35
SECTION - I
Note: 1) Answer any FIVE questions, choosing atleast TWO from each group.
2) Each question carries TWO marks. 5 × 2 = 10
GROUP - A
1. Distinguish between inertial and Non-inertial frames of reference.
2. What are the characteristics of a simple harmonic motion?
3. Mention the applications of electrolysis.
4. Draw the block diagram of a computer.
GROUP - B
5. Write the electronic configuration of
a) Chromium b) Sodium
6. Sketch the structure of Paracetamol drug molecules.
7. Calculate the pH value of 0.001 M HCl.
8. How is Tollen's reagent prepared? How is glucose tested with it?
SECTION - II
Note: 1) Answer any FOUR of the following SIX questions.
2) Each question carries ONE mark. 4 × 1 = 4
9. What is a hole?
10. State the law of radio active disintegration.
11. Why 'g' value decreases when we go deep into the earth?
12. Define a strong acid.
13. What are primary nutrients?
14. How many 'm' values are possible for l = 3?
SECTION - III
Note: 1) Answer any FOUR questions, choosing at least TWO from each group.
2) Each question carries FOUR marks. 4 × 4 = 16
GROUP - A
15. Mention any eight uses of laser of light in the fields of medicine, industry, in
space science and defence.
16. What is the principle of a Nuclear Reactor? How is chain reaction controlled in
a Nuclear Reactor?
17. State the properties and uses of a junction diode.
18. A house is fitted with 10 lamps of 60 watts each. If each lamp burns for 5 hours a
day on an average, find the cost of consumption in a month of 30 days at 80 paise
for unit.
GROUP - B
19. Explain the formation of a coordinate covalent bond.
20. Explain the following.
a) Representative elements b) s - block elements
c) p - block elements d) Transition elements
21. Define ionisation energy and mention the factors that influence ionisation
energy.
22. What are the sources of oils and fats? Mention three industrial uses of oil?
SECTION - IV
Note: 1) Answer any ONE of the following questions.
2) This question carries FIVE marks. 1 × 5 = 5
23. Draw the diagrams showing negative zero error and positive zero error of
screw gauge.
24. Draw the diagram showing the parts of sugar industry.
Time: 30 Minutes Part -B Marks: 15
Note: 1) Answer ALL questions.
2) Each question carries mark.
3) Candidates must use the CAPITAL LETTERS while answering the multiple choice questions.
4) Marks will NOT be awarded in case of any overwriting or re-writing or erased answers.
I. Pick up the correct answer and fill in the brackets with the CAPITAL
LETTER of the correct answer chosen. (10 × 1−2 = 5)
1. According to Kepler concept, the orbit of a planet around the Sun is ( )
A) circular B) elliptical C) rectangular D) linear
2. In the following, which is not a diamagnetic substance? ( )
A) Air B) Nickel C) Water D) Bismuth
3. If the distance between a node and the next antinode in a stationary wave is
10 cms, then the wavelength is ( )
A) 5 cm B) 20 cm C) 40 cm D) 10 cm
4. A solid angle is measured in..... ( )
A) Candela B) Lumen C) Steradians D) Radians
5. In p type Semi-conductors, majority carriers are ( )
A) Electrons B) Holes
C) Ions D) Electrons and Holes
6. Among 3p, 4s, 3d and 4p the orbital having the least energy is ( )
A) 4s B) 3p C) 3d D) 4p
7. CaO is ( )
A) Acidic B) Basic C) Neutral D) Amphoteric
8. Drugs which act on blood circulation are ( )
A) hormones B) vitamins C) cardio-vascular D) antibiotics
9. The name of C6H14 is.... ( )
A) Hexane B) Octane C) Methane D) Propane
10. 10 gms of Na2CO3 is dissolved in 190 gms. of water. The W% of solution is
( )
A) 20 B) 5 C) 10 D) 2.5
II. Fill in the blanks. (10 × 1−2 = 5)
11. The value of 'G' is ___________.
12. When a body is projected upwards, the acceleration due to gravity is taken as
__________.
13. Radio waves have wave lengths from ______ to _______.
14. The process of achieving population inversion is called ____.
15. Magnetic field induction on the equatorial line is given by B = __________
Newtons/ Ampere-meter.
16. NH3 has _____________ Shape.
17. The body fluid whose pH is greater than ''7'' is _______.
18. The process of cooling glass is called __________.
19. The solid Carbon dioxide is called as ___________.
20. ___________ hold materials together by surface attachment.
III. Match the following. (10 × 1−2 = 5)
Physics
i) Group- A Group - B
21. Deuterium ( ) A) 1.66 × 10-12 Joules
22. Mass of Proton ( ) B) 1.0087 amu
23. Mass of Neutron ( ) C) 9.8 m/sec2
24. Acceleration due to gravity ( ) D) 4.2 joules
25. 1 calorie ( ) E) 21H
F) 1.0078 amu
G) 931.5 Me V
Chemistry
ii) Group - A Group - B
26. Carbon tetrachloride ( ) A) CHCl3
27. Butane ( ) B) CH4
28. Methane ( ) C) C6H6
29. Chloroform ( ) D) CCl4
30. Benzene ( ) E) C4H10
F) C2H2
G) CH3
10th Class Social Studies Model Paper 2
Board of Secondary Education, Andhra Pradesh will conduct 10th Class public exams very soon. Here is the Social Studies Model Paper - II for English Medium students. Total time is 2-30 hours and marks are 50.
PART - A
TIME: 2 HOURS MARKS: 35
SECTION - I
Note: 1. Answer any five questions choosing at least two from each of the
following groups "A" and "B"
2. Each question carries two marks. 5 × 2 = 10
Group - A
1. What is the difference between a "Dun" and "Pass"?
2. What are the natural Scenic beauties of Srinagar?
3. Describe the mechanism of monsoon in India.
4. Give exomples for the following minerals.
a) Metallic b) Non - Metallic c) Fuel d) Atomic
Group - B
5. Differentiate between involuntary and voluntary unemployment.
6. What are termed as Basic industries? Give examples.
7. Explain the factors causing inequalities in income and wealth.
8. What is an organised sector and unorgonised sector?
SECTION - II
Note: 1. Answer any four questions from the following in one or two sentences
each.
2 Each question carries one mark. 4 × 1 = 4
9. Where are the Oil refineries located in India.
10. Name the important forest based industries.
11. What are the problems faced by the Kolkata port?
12. What is the important objective of planning?
13. Regarding ownership how are Indian industries classified?
14. Expand N.R.E.P.
SECTION - III
Note: 1. Answer any four questions choosing atleast two from each of the
following groups "A" and "B"
2. Each question carries four marks. 4 × 4 = 16
Group - A
15. What is a Sub-Continent? Explain how India can be called a Sub-Continent?
16. What are the problems faced by Indian agriculture?
17. What are the main problems of population explosion?
18. What are the advantages of road transport, when compared to railway transport?
Group - B
19. Describe the occupational structure of Indian Economy.
20. What are the general and specific objectives of planning in India?
21. Distinguish various Economic systems.
22. Define poverty line. Explain the concepts of absolute and relative poverty.
SECTION - IV
Note: Mark the following places on the given India out-line map. 1 × 5 = 5
23. Set -A
1. Bhubaneswar 2. Kanchenjunga
3. Rail Route from Chennai to Delhi 4. Buckingham canal
5. Visakhapatnam port
OR
Set -B
1. Andaman and Nicobar islands 2. River Godavari
3. Malwa plateau 4. Palk strait
5. National Highway No.5
PART - B
TIME: 30 MINTUES MARKS: 15
I. Write the capital letter showing the correct answer of the following questions in the brackets provided against them. (10 × 12 = 5)
1. The second largest peninsular river ( )
A) Krishna B) Godavari C) Mahanadi D) Cauvery
2. Sandal wood is largely found in this state ( )
A) Kerala B) Punjab C) Karnataka D) Tamilnadu
3. The soils without free carbonates ( )
A) Alluvial B) Black C) Laterite D) Red
4. Simla is the Capital City of ( )
A) Punjab B) Himachal Pradesh
C) Rajasthan D) Gujarat
5. The country having maximum imports from India is ( )
A) Japan B) France C) Russia D) U.S.A.
6. The income earned from labour or work is called as ( )
A) Earned income B) unearned income
C) National Product D) G.N.P. per-capita
7. "The Health for All" strategy changed as ( )
A) Health B) Health for under privileged
C) Health Centres D) Health for Land Lords
8. The Tele-communication policy of 1994 proposed to ( )
A) increase employment B) increase cable lines
C) increase private investment D) decrease foreign investment
9. The agency to control and regulate the flow of money and credit in the country
is ( )
A) Reserve Bank of India B) State Bank of India
C) Ministry of Finance D) Prime Minister
10. Heavy Industry strategy was the objective in the ( )
A) The first five year plan B) The second five year plan
C) The third five year plan D) The fourth five year plan
II. Fill in the blanks with suitable words. (10 × 1/2 = 5)
11. Broadly speaking the climate of India can be described as _____
12. The Hiracud project was constructed across the river _____
13. International air services will be run by _____
14. _____ is the single Largest item of import.
15. India is _____ in copper production.
16. The public enterprises operation under the ownership of the state is known as
_____.
17. _____ distinguished between involuntary and voluntary unemployment.
18. Removal of poverty (Garibi Hatao) was important part of _____ five year plan.
19. Indian planning has started in the year _____.
20. Most of the rain water needed for cultivation comes during the months of June-
September, which is known as _____ monsoon.
III. Match the following by writing the letter of the correct answer in the bracets,
choosing from the Group - B. (10 × 1/2 = 5)
Set -A
21. Soil erosion ( ) A) Tamilnadu
22. Population per Sq.km ( ) B) Oil Refinery
23. Noon mathi ( ) C) Rains
24. Paradeep ( ) D) Kerala
25. Nagarjuna Sagar Project ( ) E) River Krishna
F) West Bengal
G) Odisha
H) Density
Set -B
26. Dadabhai Nauroji ( ) A) I.R.D.P., J.R.Y., N.R.E.P.
27. Anti-Poverty programmes ( ) B) Poverty
28. Irrigation schemes ( ) C) H.Y.V. seeds
29. Green Revolution ( ) D) I.A.Y., U.B.S.
30. Social housing schemes ( ) E) National Income ÷ Population
F) R.W.P., M.F.A.L.
G) Plunder of wealth
H) C.A.D major, medium, minor projects
PART - A
TIME: 2 HOURS MARKS: 35
SECTION - I
Note: 1. Answer any five questions choosing at least two from each of the
following groups "A" and "B"
2. Each question carries two marks. 5 × 2 = 10
Group - A
1. What is the difference between a "Dun" and "Pass"?
2. What are the natural Scenic beauties of Srinagar?
3. Describe the mechanism of monsoon in India.
4. Give exomples for the following minerals.
a) Metallic b) Non - Metallic c) Fuel d) Atomic
Group - B
5. Differentiate between involuntary and voluntary unemployment.
6. What are termed as Basic industries? Give examples.
7. Explain the factors causing inequalities in income and wealth.
8. What is an organised sector and unorgonised sector?
SECTION - II
Note: 1. Answer any four questions from the following in one or two sentences
each.
2 Each question carries one mark. 4 × 1 = 4
9. Where are the Oil refineries located in India.
10. Name the important forest based industries.
11. What are the problems faced by the Kolkata port?
12. What is the important objective of planning?
13. Regarding ownership how are Indian industries classified?
14. Expand N.R.E.P.
SECTION - III
Note: 1. Answer any four questions choosing atleast two from each of the
following groups "A" and "B"
2. Each question carries four marks. 4 × 4 = 16
Group - A
15. What is a Sub-Continent? Explain how India can be called a Sub-Continent?
16. What are the problems faced by Indian agriculture?
17. What are the main problems of population explosion?
18. What are the advantages of road transport, when compared to railway transport?
Group - B
19. Describe the occupational structure of Indian Economy.
20. What are the general and specific objectives of planning in India?
21. Distinguish various Economic systems.
22. Define poverty line. Explain the concepts of absolute and relative poverty.
SECTION - IV
Note: Mark the following places on the given India out-line map. 1 × 5 = 5
23. Set -A
1. Bhubaneswar 2. Kanchenjunga
3. Rail Route from Chennai to Delhi 4. Buckingham canal
5. Visakhapatnam port
OR
Set -B
1. Andaman and Nicobar islands 2. River Godavari
3. Malwa plateau 4. Palk strait
5. National Highway No.5
PART - B
TIME: 30 MINTUES MARKS: 15
I. Write the capital letter showing the correct answer of the following questions in the brackets provided against them. (10 × 12 = 5)
1. The second largest peninsular river ( )
A) Krishna B) Godavari C) Mahanadi D) Cauvery
2. Sandal wood is largely found in this state ( )
A) Kerala B) Punjab C) Karnataka D) Tamilnadu
3. The soils without free carbonates ( )
A) Alluvial B) Black C) Laterite D) Red
4. Simla is the Capital City of ( )
A) Punjab B) Himachal Pradesh
C) Rajasthan D) Gujarat
5. The country having maximum imports from India is ( )
A) Japan B) France C) Russia D) U.S.A.
6. The income earned from labour or work is called as ( )
A) Earned income B) unearned income
C) National Product D) G.N.P. per-capita
7. "The Health for All" strategy changed as ( )
A) Health B) Health for under privileged
C) Health Centres D) Health for Land Lords
8. The Tele-communication policy of 1994 proposed to ( )
A) increase employment B) increase cable lines
C) increase private investment D) decrease foreign investment
9. The agency to control and regulate the flow of money and credit in the country
is ( )
A) Reserve Bank of India B) State Bank of India
C) Ministry of Finance D) Prime Minister
10. Heavy Industry strategy was the objective in the ( )
A) The first five year plan B) The second five year plan
C) The third five year plan D) The fourth five year plan
II. Fill in the blanks with suitable words. (10 × 1/2 = 5)
11. Broadly speaking the climate of India can be described as _____
12. The Hiracud project was constructed across the river _____
13. International air services will be run by _____
14. _____ is the single Largest item of import.
15. India is _____ in copper production.
16. The public enterprises operation under the ownership of the state is known as
_____.
17. _____ distinguished between involuntary and voluntary unemployment.
18. Removal of poverty (Garibi Hatao) was important part of _____ five year plan.
19. Indian planning has started in the year _____.
20. Most of the rain water needed for cultivation comes during the months of June-
September, which is known as _____ monsoon.
III. Match the following by writing the letter of the correct answer in the bracets,
choosing from the Group - B. (10 × 1/2 = 5)
Set -A
21. Soil erosion ( ) A) Tamilnadu
22. Population per Sq.km ( ) B) Oil Refinery
23. Noon mathi ( ) C) Rains
24. Paradeep ( ) D) Kerala
25. Nagarjuna Sagar Project ( ) E) River Krishna
F) West Bengal
G) Odisha
H) Density
Set -B
26. Dadabhai Nauroji ( ) A) I.R.D.P., J.R.Y., N.R.E.P.
27. Anti-Poverty programmes ( ) B) Poverty
28. Irrigation schemes ( ) C) H.Y.V. seeds
29. Green Revolution ( ) D) I.A.Y., U.B.S.
30. Social housing schemes ( ) E) National Income ÷ Population
F) R.W.P., M.F.A.L.
G) Plunder of wealth
H) C.A.D major, medium, minor projects
10th Class English Medium - English Model Paper 1
Following is the English Model Question Paper (English Medium) for 10th Class / SSC students of Andhra Pradesh / Telangana. Time of the exam is 2 1/2 hours and maximum marks are 50.
(1-8) Answer each of the following questions in abour THREE sentences
1. How did the fire in the forest start? (Fire in the Forest)
2. How had the ‘driver’ lost his shoulder and arm? (In celebration of Being Alive)
3. Why do you think Schwamm wanted to get to known his partner? (The Nighe of the Hotel)
4. How do we know the Rex had a gentle disposition? (Snapshot of a Dog)
5. In what way was the 10th of September 1946 important in Mother Theresa’s Life? (Mother Teresa)
6. What is Russell’s concept of a citizen? (Knowledge and Wisdom)
7. What is the secret source of the three’s strength? (On killing a Tree)
8. What is the relevance of Viboba Bhave’s message to the modern world? (Vinoba-A portrait sketch)
(9-24) Write the answers to these questions in your answer book.
(9-13) Choose the correct meanings of the words on the left and write them in your answer book.
9. disperse : move separate throw distract
10. snarl : shout stare attract threaten
11. notorious : popular various difficult disgraceful
12. malice : evil container rumour disease
13. wrench : pull bird destroy wet
(14-18) Note the meaning of each underlined word in the sentence in which it occurs. Select the option that conveys the meaning and write it in your answer book.
14. They presented him a miniature model of the monumnet.
a) minute b) sall c) expensive
15. They laughed heartly after the incident
a) angrily b) wholehearted c) healthy
16. The flowers withered away due to the heat.
a) dried b) destroyed c) droop
17. The birds bathed in the tepid water.
a) clear b) sweet c) lukewarm
18. The work could not be completed despite all their endeavours.
a) efforts b) plans c) expenses
(19-24) Choose the alternative that best fits the blank in each sentence and write it in your answer book.
19. In foreig countries, Gandhi is often recognised as the .......... of India.
(character, founder, embodiment)
20. The familiar surroundings .......... up many images in my mind.
(bought, conjured, imagine)
21. The car .......... dangerously before coming to a sudden halt.
( turned, swerved, screeched)
22. The manager .......... off angrily after giving them orders
( broke, stalked, threatened)
23. Peace can only be achieved if one moved beyond .......... of caste and culture.
( discussions, beliefs, prejudices)
24. The prime Minister was .......... when he saw the intensity of the disaster.
(overwhelmed, intense, overpowered)
(25-28) Find the wrongly spel word in each of the following sets and write it correctly in your answer book.
25. necessarily -accessible -feasible -conceivable
26. malignant -allignment -design- enlightenment
27. depute -ampuetate -ritual -fumigate
28. somersalt -vault -applaud -authoritative
(29-36) Write out in your answer book the words of your choice against the question numbers.
(29-32) In each set, find the word in which the underlined part is pronounced in the same way as in the key word.
29. chortle : church chorus chronicle chord
30. reared : stopped galloped shorted appeared
31. relative : expansive superlative invasve estate
32. horses : churches cats walks balls
(33-36) Find the word in each set that rhymes with the key word.
33. prize : nice size choice voice
34. spring : sing using bring king
35. awoke : broke provoke soak pack
36. grip : peep tip quip trip
37. Read the following passage in which the end of each sentence is not indicated. Decide which each sentence ends. Write out the last words of each sentence and the appropriate punctual marks(.),(?) or(!).
I am sorry but the school compound cannot be a through fare it is against regulations you take another road.
38. Use commas, full stops, exclamation / question / quotation marks wherever necessary and rewrite the sentence in your answer book.
If you fall off during our flight you’ll die.
(39-43) Read setence (a), then complete sentence (b) using the ideas in sentence (a). Keep sentence
(b) as close in meanig as possible to sentence (a). Write it in your answer book.5×1M=5M
39. a) Tou can tell him. You will meet him today.
b) When .....................................................
40. a) I was ill. I went to the doctor
b) I went .....................................................
41. a)” Please don’t be late for class”.
b) The teacher .....................................................
42. a) There are many books in the library. Students do not read them.
b) Although .....................................................
43. a) I did’t have your telephone number. I couldn’t call you.
b) If I .....................................................
44. Identify the parts of speech of each underlined word. Write down the words and their parts of speech in your answer book.
The cheetah has a thin elongated body and is said to be te fastest runner on earth.
45. Rewrite the following after making necessary corrections 1×1M=1M
I am having two elder brothers and one elder sister.
46. Rewrite the following passage making any improvements that you think are necessary. 1×2M=2M
Computers have become very popular all over the world. Computers can be used for entertainment and for information. Computers have also become affordable.
(47-51) Read the following passage and answer the questions given below it. 5×1M=5M
The desert camel known as the ‘ship of the desert’, is perfectly made for a hard life. He has sharp teeth which enable him to bite and chew roots and even thorns. He eats dry shrubs and grasses. When the camel finds water, he drinks enough to store about seven litres. This he is able to use for three or four days.
How does the camel use this water? It is kept in ‘tanks’ that can be closed off from his stomach and opened when he wants a drink. His body tissues also function as storage cells. At the age of four months, he grows a lump of fat on his back. He draws nourishment from this fat when he has no other food to eat. This lump of stored fat is what makes the hump on a camel’s back.
47. Why des the camel chew roots and thorns?
48. How does the camel grw the lump of fat?
49. When does the camle grow the lmp of fat?
50. When is the lump of fat used for nourshment?
51. What is the use of the hump on the camle’s back?
52. Read the following passage.
Percussion instruments from one family of musical instruments. The word ‘percussion’ means ‘striking’. Percussion instruments make sound when you strike them. A drum is a precussion instrument. it has a thin piece of material, called a ‘drum-head;, stretched over a hallow piece of wood or metal. When you strike the drum-head, it vibrates. This makes the air around the drum vibrate. It also makes the air inside the drum vibrate. The vibrations inside the drum bounce back ad forth, somewhat like an echo. These vibrations are the sound that we here. Cybals are also percussion instruments. They make a loud, clashing sound when they are hit together.
Now read the following statements and find SIX of them which are in agreement with the passage. Write only the letters of TRUE statements
a) Precussion instruments make sound when you strike them.
b) A drum makes a sound when you strike it.
c) The drum-head is a price of wood or metal.
d) When you strike the drum-head the air inside the drum vibrates.
e) The vibrations inside the drum are similar to an echo.
f) The vibrations of the air around the drum prodces the sound we hear.
g) Cymbals, like drums are also percussion instruments.
h) The sound produced by cymbals is similar to the sound produced by drums.
i) Cymbals produce sound when they are hit together.
j) Percussion instruments belong to a family of musical instruments.
(53-55) Read the following passage:
Human beings have a much poorer sense of smell than animals which hunt their prey or have to be constantly on the look out for enemies. If the wind is in the right direction, a deer can smell a person 800 meters (half mile) away. A dg can follow the faint scent left by a rabbit in it tracks or detect the smell of crushed grass
where the rabbit has passed over it. Not only is the human sense of smell poor, but it also gets used to odours easily. If a person sniffs at a swak smell for a few minutes, he is soon unable to smell it at all.
Now complete the followign statemtns. In each case, write down the number of the statement and your choice in your answer book.
53. According to the passage ..........
a) animals have a better sense of smell than human beings.
b) human beings can smell strong odours better than animals
c) a deer has a better sense of smell than dogs.
54. Human beings have a much poorer sense of smell than .......
a) animals such as the dog and the deer.
b) animals which hunt their prey.
c) animals which are generally ground in forests.
55. In addition to being poor, the human sense of smell .......
a) cannot detect weak smells.
b) gets used to odours easily.
c) is not well developed.
(1-8) Answer each of the following questions in abour THREE sentences
1. How did the fire in the forest start? (Fire in the Forest)
2. How had the ‘driver’ lost his shoulder and arm? (In celebration of Being Alive)
3. Why do you think Schwamm wanted to get to known his partner? (The Nighe of the Hotel)
4. How do we know the Rex had a gentle disposition? (Snapshot of a Dog)
5. In what way was the 10th of September 1946 important in Mother Theresa’s Life? (Mother Teresa)
6. What is Russell’s concept of a citizen? (Knowledge and Wisdom)
7. What is the secret source of the three’s strength? (On killing a Tree)
8. What is the relevance of Viboba Bhave’s message to the modern world? (Vinoba-A portrait sketch)
(9-24) Write the answers to these questions in your answer book.
(9-13) Choose the correct meanings of the words on the left and write them in your answer book.
9. disperse : move separate throw distract
10. snarl : shout stare attract threaten
11. notorious : popular various difficult disgraceful
12. malice : evil container rumour disease
13. wrench : pull bird destroy wet
(14-18) Note the meaning of each underlined word in the sentence in which it occurs. Select the option that conveys the meaning and write it in your answer book.
14. They presented him a miniature model of the monumnet.
a) minute b) sall c) expensive
15. They laughed heartly after the incident
a) angrily b) wholehearted c) healthy
16. The flowers withered away due to the heat.
a) dried b) destroyed c) droop
17. The birds bathed in the tepid water.
a) clear b) sweet c) lukewarm
18. The work could not be completed despite all their endeavours.
a) efforts b) plans c) expenses
(19-24) Choose the alternative that best fits the blank in each sentence and write it in your answer book.
19. In foreig countries, Gandhi is often recognised as the .......... of India.
(character, founder, embodiment)
20. The familiar surroundings .......... up many images in my mind.
(bought, conjured, imagine)
21. The car .......... dangerously before coming to a sudden halt.
( turned, swerved, screeched)
22. The manager .......... off angrily after giving them orders
( broke, stalked, threatened)
23. Peace can only be achieved if one moved beyond .......... of caste and culture.
( discussions, beliefs, prejudices)
24. The prime Minister was .......... when he saw the intensity of the disaster.
(overwhelmed, intense, overpowered)
(25-28) Find the wrongly spel word in each of the following sets and write it correctly in your answer book.
25. necessarily -accessible -feasible -conceivable
26. malignant -allignment -design- enlightenment
27. depute -ampuetate -ritual -fumigate
28. somersalt -vault -applaud -authoritative
(29-36) Write out in your answer book the words of your choice against the question numbers.
(29-32) In each set, find the word in which the underlined part is pronounced in the same way as in the key word.
29. chortle : church chorus chronicle chord
30. reared : stopped galloped shorted appeared
31. relative : expansive superlative invasve estate
32. horses : churches cats walks balls
(33-36) Find the word in each set that rhymes with the key word.
33. prize : nice size choice voice
34. spring : sing using bring king
35. awoke : broke provoke soak pack
36. grip : peep tip quip trip
37. Read the following passage in which the end of each sentence is not indicated. Decide which each sentence ends. Write out the last words of each sentence and the appropriate punctual marks(.),(?) or(!).
I am sorry but the school compound cannot be a through fare it is against regulations you take another road.
38. Use commas, full stops, exclamation / question / quotation marks wherever necessary and rewrite the sentence in your answer book.
If you fall off during our flight you’ll die.
(39-43) Read setence (a), then complete sentence (b) using the ideas in sentence (a). Keep sentence
(b) as close in meanig as possible to sentence (a). Write it in your answer book.5×1M=5M
39. a) Tou can tell him. You will meet him today.
b) When .....................................................
40. a) I was ill. I went to the doctor
b) I went .....................................................
41. a)” Please don’t be late for class”.
b) The teacher .....................................................
42. a) There are many books in the library. Students do not read them.
b) Although .....................................................
43. a) I did’t have your telephone number. I couldn’t call you.
b) If I .....................................................
44. Identify the parts of speech of each underlined word. Write down the words and their parts of speech in your answer book.
The cheetah has a thin elongated body and is said to be te fastest runner on earth.
45. Rewrite the following after making necessary corrections 1×1M=1M
I am having two elder brothers and one elder sister.
46. Rewrite the following passage making any improvements that you think are necessary. 1×2M=2M
Computers have become very popular all over the world. Computers can be used for entertainment and for information. Computers have also become affordable.
(47-51) Read the following passage and answer the questions given below it. 5×1M=5M
The desert camel known as the ‘ship of the desert’, is perfectly made for a hard life. He has sharp teeth which enable him to bite and chew roots and even thorns. He eats dry shrubs and grasses. When the camel finds water, he drinks enough to store about seven litres. This he is able to use for three or four days.
How does the camel use this water? It is kept in ‘tanks’ that can be closed off from his stomach and opened when he wants a drink. His body tissues also function as storage cells. At the age of four months, he grows a lump of fat on his back. He draws nourishment from this fat when he has no other food to eat. This lump of stored fat is what makes the hump on a camel’s back.
47. Why des the camel chew roots and thorns?
48. How does the camel grw the lump of fat?
49. When does the camle grow the lmp of fat?
50. When is the lump of fat used for nourshment?
51. What is the use of the hump on the camle’s back?
52. Read the following passage.
Percussion instruments from one family of musical instruments. The word ‘percussion’ means ‘striking’. Percussion instruments make sound when you strike them. A drum is a precussion instrument. it has a thin piece of material, called a ‘drum-head;, stretched over a hallow piece of wood or metal. When you strike the drum-head, it vibrates. This makes the air around the drum vibrate. It also makes the air inside the drum vibrate. The vibrations inside the drum bounce back ad forth, somewhat like an echo. These vibrations are the sound that we here. Cybals are also percussion instruments. They make a loud, clashing sound when they are hit together.
Now read the following statements and find SIX of them which are in agreement with the passage. Write only the letters of TRUE statements
a) Precussion instruments make sound when you strike them.
b) A drum makes a sound when you strike it.
c) The drum-head is a price of wood or metal.
d) When you strike the drum-head the air inside the drum vibrates.
e) The vibrations inside the drum are similar to an echo.
f) The vibrations of the air around the drum prodces the sound we hear.
g) Cymbals, like drums are also percussion instruments.
h) The sound produced by cymbals is similar to the sound produced by drums.
i) Cymbals produce sound when they are hit together.
j) Percussion instruments belong to a family of musical instruments.
(53-55) Read the following passage:
Human beings have a much poorer sense of smell than animals which hunt their prey or have to be constantly on the look out for enemies. If the wind is in the right direction, a deer can smell a person 800 meters (half mile) away. A dg can follow the faint scent left by a rabbit in it tracks or detect the smell of crushed grass
where the rabbit has passed over it. Not only is the human sense of smell poor, but it also gets used to odours easily. If a person sniffs at a swak smell for a few minutes, he is soon unable to smell it at all.
Now complete the followign statemtns. In each case, write down the number of the statement and your choice in your answer book.
53. According to the passage ..........
a) animals have a better sense of smell than human beings.
b) human beings can smell strong odours better than animals
c) a deer has a better sense of smell than dogs.
54. Human beings have a much poorer sense of smell than .......
a) animals such as the dog and the deer.
b) animals which hunt their prey.
c) animals which are generally ground in forests.
55. In addition to being poor, the human sense of smell .......
a) cannot detect weak smells.
b) gets used to odours easily.
c) is not well developed.
10th Class Hall Tickets Download 2014
Board of Secondary Education, Department of School Education, Government of Andhra Pradesh (BSEAP) has informed that the hall tickets for SSC / 10th Class Public Examinations 2014 can be downloaded from the website www.bseap.org . The 10th class examinations will commence from 27nd March 2014 across the state.
The School education department has made all the arrangements to conduct the exam in a smooth manner. More than 10 lakhs students from English and Telugu mediums will be appearing for the exam.
Following are model papers for SSC Public Examinations:
SSC Physics Model Paper
SSC Social Studies Model Paper
SSC Maths Model Paper
SSC English Model Paper
Detailed examination time table for SSC Public Exams 2014 is also available on the website. See details on the website http://bseap.org
The School education department has made all the arrangements to conduct the exam in a smooth manner. More than 10 lakhs students from English and Telugu mediums will be appearing for the exam.
Following are model papers for SSC Public Examinations:
SSC Physics Model Paper
SSC Social Studies Model Paper
SSC Maths Model Paper
SSC English Model Paper
Detailed examination time table for SSC Public Exams 2014 is also available on the website. See details on the website http://bseap.org
10th Class General Science Model Paper II
Following is the General Science Model Paper for SSC / 10th Class students of Andhra Pradesh The candidates can use this model question paper for half - yearly and final public examinations.
Section I (marks: 4 x 1 = 4)
Note: 1. answer any four questions from the following.
2. Each question carries one mark.
1. what is epiglottis?
2. what is a target tissue?
3. what is callus?
4. what is incubation period?
5. why do sports persons take Glucose?
6. what are carbon sinks?
Section-II (marks: 5x2=10)
Note: 1.answer any five questions, choosing at least two from each group “A and B”.
2. Each question carries two marks.
Group- A
7. write short notes on agglutination of blood.
8. what are respiratory substrates? Give two examples.
9. where do you find cerebrospinal fluid and what are its functions?
10. write short notes on tetany.
Group- B
11. write short note on Hermaphroditism in animals.
12. what is embryo rescue? When is this method followed?
13. describe the duties of village health guide.
14. what are corals? Write their importance.
Section-III (marks: 4x4=16)
Note: 1.answer any four questions, choosing at least two from each group A and B.
2. Each question carries four marks.
Group-A
15. What is hypertension? How is it caused? Mention the preventive steps to be taken.
16. How do you prove that carbon dioxide is essential for photosynthesis?
17. What is the importance of pituitary gland in the body? Mention the hormones and the functions of this gland.
18. Plant growth substances act together or against each other. Give suitable examples in support of the statement.
Group-B
19. Give an account of menstrual cycle in human beings.
20. What are the modes of HIV transmission?
21. Describe the changes in malarial parasite that occur in man.
22. What are the differences between kwashiorkor and marasmus?
Section-IV (marks: 1x5=5)
23. Draw a neat labeled diagram of transverse section of leaf.
24. Draw a neat labeled diagram of female reproductive system of frog.
Part-B
Time: 30 minutes marks: 15
Note: 1. answer all the questions.
2. Each question carries ½ marks.
3. Candidates must use the capital letters while answering the multiple choice questions.
4. Marks will not be awarded in case of any over writing or re-writing or erased answers.
I. writes the “CAPITAL LETTER” (A, B, C, D) choosing the correct answer in the bracket provided against each question.
1.Iodine can be used to test the presence of ( )
A.glucose B. light C. starch D.. carbon dioxide.
2. Heart attack is caused by the blocking of ( )
A. pulmonary artery B. coronary artery C. coronary vein D. pulmonary vein
3. microscopic policemen of body are ( b )
A. erythrocytes B. neutrophils C. acidophils D. platelets
4. double circuit heart is present in ( )
A. Earthworm B. cockroach C. fish D. Monkey
5. Dicotyledonous weeds are destroyed by a chemical called ( b )
A. IAA B. 2-4 Dichlorophenoxy acetic acid C. Abscisic acid D. Naphthalene acetic acid.
6. External fertilization occurs in ( )
A. frog, rat B. crow, fish C. snake, fish D. frog, fish
7. number of ova released at a time in female human beings is ( )
A. 4 B. 3 C. 2 D. 1
8. The energy released by 1 gram of glucose is ( )
A. 4 k.cal B. 5 k.cal C. 6 k.cal D. 3 k.cal
9. Bone deformities occur due to the excessive intake of ( )
A. phosphorus B. potassium C. fatty acid D. fluorine
10. when fossil fuel is burnt, this gas is released ( )
A. Oxygen B. Nitrogen C. Carbon dioxide D. Sulphur dioxide
II. Fill in the blanks with suitable words: (10x1/2 = 5)
11. Inner folds of mitochondria are called------------------
12. The normal blood pressure in man is----------------.
13. Melvin calvin won the Nobel prize for his work on ------------------.
14. Excess production of parathormone results in ------------------.
15. Menstrual cycle occurs once in every ------------- days.
16. The “3n” nucleus is formed from fusion of ---------------- nucleus with male nucleus inside embryosac.
17. The primary host of malarial parasite is ---------------------
18. Environment friendly fuel is -------------.
19. Deficiency of vitamin C causes a disease called -------------
20. A German called ----------- was the originator of first aid.
Match the following:
Group-A group- B (5x1/2=21/2)
21. photon ( ) a. Stem enlargement
22. Blood ( ) b. vegetative reproduction
23. auxin ( ) c. Quantum energy
24. totipotency ( ) d. plasma
25. Implantation ( ) e. New plant from a single cell
f. Fluid connective tissue
g. Attachment of the embryo to the uterus
Group- A group-B (5x1/2=21/2)
26. spawn ( ) a. extinct bird
27. measles ( ) b. milt
28. compound fracture ( ) c. Ionosphere
29. ozone layer ( ) d. open fracture
30. Dodo ( ) e. group of eggs
f. paramyxovirus
g. Biotechnology
Section I (marks: 4 x 1 = 4)
Note: 1. answer any four questions from the following.
2. Each question carries one mark.
1. what is epiglottis?
2. what is a target tissue?
3. what is callus?
4. what is incubation period?
5. why do sports persons take Glucose?
6. what are carbon sinks?
Section-II (marks: 5x2=10)
Note: 1.answer any five questions, choosing at least two from each group “A and B”.
2. Each question carries two marks.
Group- A
7. write short notes on agglutination of blood.
8. what are respiratory substrates? Give two examples.
9. where do you find cerebrospinal fluid and what are its functions?
10. write short notes on tetany.
Group- B
11. write short note on Hermaphroditism in animals.
12. what is embryo rescue? When is this method followed?
13. describe the duties of village health guide.
14. what are corals? Write their importance.
Section-III (marks: 4x4=16)
Note: 1.answer any four questions, choosing at least two from each group A and B.
2. Each question carries four marks.
Group-A
15. What is hypertension? How is it caused? Mention the preventive steps to be taken.
16. How do you prove that carbon dioxide is essential for photosynthesis?
17. What is the importance of pituitary gland in the body? Mention the hormones and the functions of this gland.
18. Plant growth substances act together or against each other. Give suitable examples in support of the statement.
Group-B
19. Give an account of menstrual cycle in human beings.
20. What are the modes of HIV transmission?
21. Describe the changes in malarial parasite that occur in man.
22. What are the differences between kwashiorkor and marasmus?
Section-IV (marks: 1x5=5)
23. Draw a neat labeled diagram of transverse section of leaf.
24. Draw a neat labeled diagram of female reproductive system of frog.
Part-B
Time: 30 minutes marks: 15
Note: 1. answer all the questions.
2. Each question carries ½ marks.
3. Candidates must use the capital letters while answering the multiple choice questions.
4. Marks will not be awarded in case of any over writing or re-writing or erased answers.
I. writes the “CAPITAL LETTER” (A, B, C, D) choosing the correct answer in the bracket provided against each question.
1.Iodine can be used to test the presence of ( )
A.glucose B. light C. starch D.. carbon dioxide.
2. Heart attack is caused by the blocking of ( )
A. pulmonary artery B. coronary artery C. coronary vein D. pulmonary vein
3. microscopic policemen of body are ( b )
A. erythrocytes B. neutrophils C. acidophils D. platelets
4. double circuit heart is present in ( )
A. Earthworm B. cockroach C. fish D. Monkey
5. Dicotyledonous weeds are destroyed by a chemical called ( b )
A. IAA B. 2-4 Dichlorophenoxy acetic acid C. Abscisic acid D. Naphthalene acetic acid.
6. External fertilization occurs in ( )
A. frog, rat B. crow, fish C. snake, fish D. frog, fish
7. number of ova released at a time in female human beings is ( )
A. 4 B. 3 C. 2 D. 1
8. The energy released by 1 gram of glucose is ( )
A. 4 k.cal B. 5 k.cal C. 6 k.cal D. 3 k.cal
9. Bone deformities occur due to the excessive intake of ( )
A. phosphorus B. potassium C. fatty acid D. fluorine
10. when fossil fuel is burnt, this gas is released ( )
A. Oxygen B. Nitrogen C. Carbon dioxide D. Sulphur dioxide
II. Fill in the blanks with suitable words: (10x1/2 = 5)
11. Inner folds of mitochondria are called------------------
12. The normal blood pressure in man is----------------.
13. Melvin calvin won the Nobel prize for his work on ------------------.
14. Excess production of parathormone results in ------------------.
15. Menstrual cycle occurs once in every ------------- days.
16. The “3n” nucleus is formed from fusion of ---------------- nucleus with male nucleus inside embryosac.
17. The primary host of malarial parasite is ---------------------
18. Environment friendly fuel is -------------.
19. Deficiency of vitamin C causes a disease called -------------
20. A German called ----------- was the originator of first aid.
Match the following:
Group-A group- B (5x1/2=21/2)
21. photon ( ) a. Stem enlargement
22. Blood ( ) b. vegetative reproduction
23. auxin ( ) c. Quantum energy
24. totipotency ( ) d. plasma
25. Implantation ( ) e. New plant from a single cell
f. Fluid connective tissue
g. Attachment of the embryo to the uterus
Group- A group-B (5x1/2=21/2)
26. spawn ( ) a. extinct bird
27. measles ( ) b. milt
28. compound fracture ( ) c. Ionosphere
29. ozone layer ( ) d. open fracture
30. Dodo ( ) e. group of eggs
f. paramyxovirus
g. Biotechnology
AP 10th Class Exams Time Table 2013 - Schedule Released
The Government of Andhra Pradesh has announced 10th Class Public Examinations Schedule and Time Table for the year 2012-2013. The SSC examinations will start from 22nd March and will be completed by 9th April 2012. Following is the date wise and subject wise schedule of Tenth Class examinations 2013 in Andhra Pradesh.
1) March 22: Telugu Paper 1
2) March 23: Telugu Paper 2
3) March 25: Hindi (Second Language)
4) March 26: English Paper 1
5) March 28: English Paper 2
6) March 30: Mathematics Paper 1
7) April 1: Mathematics Paper 2
8) April 2: General Science Paper 1
9) April 3: General Science Paper 2
10) April 4: Social Studies Paper 1
11) April 6: Social Studies Paper 2
12) April 8: OSSC Main Language Paper 2
13) April 9: Vocational Theory
We wish all the best to all the 10th Class students of Andhra Pradesh. We have posted several model papers and previous question papers of SSC Public Examinations on this blog. You can use search option or categories to find the material useful for 10th Class students.
1) March 22: Telugu Paper 1
2) March 23: Telugu Paper 2
3) March 25: Hindi (Second Language)
4) March 26: English Paper 1
5) March 28: English Paper 2
6) March 30: Mathematics Paper 1
7) April 1: Mathematics Paper 2
8) April 2: General Science Paper 1
9) April 3: General Science Paper 2
10) April 4: Social Studies Paper 1
11) April 6: Social Studies Paper 2
12) April 8: OSSC Main Language Paper 2
13) April 9: Vocational Theory
We wish all the best to all the 10th Class students of Andhra Pradesh. We have posted several model papers and previous question papers of SSC Public Examinations on this blog. You can use search option or categories to find the material useful for 10th Class students.
SSC Exams Time Table 2013 - 10th Class Public Exams Schedule
Here is the latest update on SSC Public Examinations 2012 - 2013 in Andhra Pradesh. The examinations will be held from the third week of March 2013. The exact dates and exams time table and subject wise schedule will be released by the Board of Secondary Education, Govt. of Andhra Pradesh in due course of time. The SSC / 10th Class exams are most likely to commence from the third week of March 2013.
The dates will be announced by the authorities very soon. The examinations will be conducted for Telugu, English, Hindi, Mathematics, Sciences, Social Studies etc. Following is the time and schedule (Tentative) for SSC Exams 2012 - 2013.
Examination on everyday shall commence at 9-30 AM and close at 12 PM. SSC / 10th Results are likely to be announced during last week of May 2013. About 10 lakhs students appear for 10th class exams every year in AP.
1. March - First Language Paper -1
2. March - First Language Paper -2
3. March - Second Language (Hindi)
4. March - English Paper -1
5. March - English Paper -2
6. March - Maths Paper -1
7. March - Maths Paper -2
8. April - General Science Paper -1
9. April - General Science Paper-2
10. April - Social Paper -1
11. April - Social Paper -2
12. April - OSSC Main Language Paper -2
13. April - SSC Vocational Course(Theory)
The detailed exams schedule may also available on the website www.bseap.org and other education websites such as eenadupratibha.net, sakshieducation.com etc.
The dates will be announced by the authorities very soon. The examinations will be conducted for Telugu, English, Hindi, Mathematics, Sciences, Social Studies etc. Following is the time and schedule (Tentative) for SSC Exams 2012 - 2013.
Examination on everyday shall commence at 9-30 AM and close at 12 PM. SSC / 10th Results are likely to be announced during last week of May 2013. About 10 lakhs students appear for 10th class exams every year in AP.
1. March - First Language Paper -1
2. March - First Language Paper -2
3. March - Second Language (Hindi)
4. March - English Paper -1
5. March - English Paper -2
6. March - Maths Paper -1
7. March - Maths Paper -2
8. April - General Science Paper -1
9. April - General Science Paper-2
10. April - Social Paper -1
11. April - Social Paper -2
12. April - OSSC Main Language Paper -2
13. April - SSC Vocational Course(Theory)
The detailed exams schedule may also available on the website www.bseap.org and other education websites such as eenadupratibha.net, sakshieducation.com etc.
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