Lesson - Waves
1. Distinguish between transverse and longitudinal waves.
2. What is the phase difference between the incident and reflected waves when the wave is reflected by a rigid boundary?
3. What is a stationary or standing wave?
4. What do you understand by the terms node and anti node?
5. If the air column in a tube open at both ends, is set in vibration. What harmonics are possible?
6. What is the phase difference between incident and reflected waves at
(a) an open end (b) closed end.
7. Name any two musical instruments whose working depends on transverse
vibrations of a string?
8. What happends to the fundamental frequency of a stretched string when its
linear density becomes 1/4 th of its initial value?
9. What is the ratio of frequency of fourth overtone to the fundamental frequency
of a stretched string?
10. What is the "end correction" in resonating air column?
11. What is the ratio of the frequencies of harmonics in air column of some length in a (i) closed pipe (ii) an open pipe?
12. Mention any two applications of beats.
13. What is the Newton's formula for velocity of sound in a gas? How is it
corrected by Laplace?
Showing posts with label Senior Inter. Show all posts
Showing posts with label Senior Inter. Show all posts
IPE Senior Inter Maths - 2B Important Questions and Answers
Integration is the reverse process of differentiation. This means that the differential coefficient of a given function on integration gives rise to the original function. Like in differentiation, various methods exist in integration also.
Following are important questions of Integration chapter of Senior Intermediate Mathematics (2B). The model / practice questions are useful for both AP and Telangana Board IPE examinations.
Following are important questions of Integration chapter of Senior Intermediate Mathematics (2B). The model / practice questions are useful for both AP and Telangana Board IPE examinations.
Senior Intermediate Physics Important 4 Marks Questions - Magnetism and Matter
Following are Senior Intermediate important questions for Physics (Magnetism and Matter chapter). These are 4 marks questions for IPE exams of Telangana and Andhra Pradesh state boards.
Q: Define retentivity and coercivity. Draw the hysteresis curve for soft iron and steel. What do you infer from these curves?
Q: a) The force between two magnetic poles separated by a distance 'd' in air is 'F'. At what distance between them does the force becomes doubled?
b) If B is the magnetic field produced at the centre of a circular coil of one turn of length 'l' carrying current 'i', then what is the magnetic field at centre of the same coil which is made into 10 turns?
Q: A bar magnet, held horizontally, is set into angular oscillation in the Earth's magnetic fields. It has time periods T1 and T2 at different places, where the angles of dip are θ1 and θ2 respectively. Deduce an expression for the ratio of the resultant magnetic fields at the two places.
Q: Explain the elements of the Earth's magnetic field and draw a sketch showing the relation between the vertical component, horizontal component and angle of dip.
Q: A small magnetic needle is set into oscillations in a uniform magnetic field. Obtain an expression for the period of oscillation.
Q: Define retentivity and coercivity. Draw the hysteresis curve for soft iron and steel. What do you infer from these curves?
Q: a) The force between two magnetic poles separated by a distance 'd' in air is 'F'. At what distance between them does the force becomes doubled?
b) If B is the magnetic field produced at the centre of a circular coil of one turn of length 'l' carrying current 'i', then what is the magnetic field at centre of the same coil which is made into 10 turns?
Q: A bar magnet, held horizontally, is set into angular oscillation in the Earth's magnetic fields. It has time periods T1 and T2 at different places, where the angles of dip are θ1 and θ2 respectively. Deduce an expression for the ratio of the resultant magnetic fields at the two places.
Q: Explain the elements of the Earth's magnetic field and draw a sketch showing the relation between the vertical component, horizontal component and angle of dip.
Q: A small magnetic needle is set into oscillations in a uniform magnetic field. Obtain an expression for the period of oscillation.
Senior Inter Physics Important 2 Marks Questions - Magnetism and Matter
Following are important questions and answers of Senior Intermediate - Physics from Magnetism and Matter chapter. These are important questions with answers useful for both Telangana and AP Board students.
Q: Define magnetic declination.
A: At a given place, the angle between geographical meridian and magnetic meridian of Earth is defined as magnetic declination.
Q: Define magnetic inclination (or) angle of dip.
A: The magnetic inclination (or) angle of dip at a place is defined as the angle made by the direction of Earth's magnetic field with the horizontal direction in magnetic meridian.
Q: Classify the following materials with regard to magnetism.
(i) Manganese (ii) Cobalt
(iii) Nickel (iv) Bismuth
(v) Oxygen (vi) Copper
A: Manganese & Oxygen are Paramagnetic materials. Cobalt & Nickel are Ferromagnetic materials. Bismuth & Copper are Diamagnetic materials.
Q: Magnetic lines form continuous closed loops. Why?
A: Isolated (mono) magnetic poles do not exist, so magnetic lines form continuous closed loops.
Q: What happens to compass needles at the Earth's poles?
A: Compass needles does not work at magnetic poles of the Earth, because at poles horizontal component of Earth's magnetic field (BH) is zero.
Some more important questions:
Q: What is the magnetic moment associated with a solenoid?
Q: If the number of turns of a solenoid is doubled, keeping the other factors constant, how does the magnetic field induction at the axis of solenoid change?
Q: If B is the magnetic field produced at centre of a circular coil of one turn of length 'L' carrying
a current i, then what is the magnetic induction at centre of the same coil which is made into 10 turns?
Q: What are the SI units of Magnetic moment, Magnetic induction and Magnetic field?
Q: Define magnetic declination.
A: At a given place, the angle between geographical meridian and magnetic meridian of Earth is defined as magnetic declination.
Q: Define magnetic inclination (or) angle of dip.
A: The magnetic inclination (or) angle of dip at a place is defined as the angle made by the direction of Earth's magnetic field with the horizontal direction in magnetic meridian.
Q: Classify the following materials with regard to magnetism.
(i) Manganese (ii) Cobalt
(iii) Nickel (iv) Bismuth
(v) Oxygen (vi) Copper
A: Manganese & Oxygen are Paramagnetic materials. Cobalt & Nickel are Ferromagnetic materials. Bismuth & Copper are Diamagnetic materials.
Q: Magnetic lines form continuous closed loops. Why?
A: Isolated (mono) magnetic poles do not exist, so magnetic lines form continuous closed loops.
Q: What happens to compass needles at the Earth's poles?
A: Compass needles does not work at magnetic poles of the Earth, because at poles horizontal component of Earth's magnetic field (BH) is zero.
Some more important questions:
Q: What is the magnetic moment associated with a solenoid?
Q: If the number of turns of a solenoid is doubled, keeping the other factors constant, how does the magnetic field induction at the axis of solenoid change?
Q: If B is the magnetic field produced at centre of a circular coil of one turn of length 'L' carrying
a current i, then what is the magnetic induction at centre of the same coil which is made into 10 turns?
Q: What are the SI units of Magnetic moment, Magnetic induction and Magnetic field?
Senior Inter Chemistry Paper 2 - Model Question Paper
Following is the Senior Intermediate Model Question Paper for AP and Telangana students appearing for IPE exams in March - April 2016. The duration of the exam is 3 hours and maximum marks are 60. The Chemistry Model Paper (Paper - II) is as per the new syllabus.
SECTION - A
I. i) Very short answer type questions.
ii) Answer ALL the questions.
iii) Each question carries TWO marks. 10 × 2 = 20
1. What are "antacids"? Give an example.
2. State "Henry's law".
3. What are pseudo first order reactions? Give an example.
4. What are the oxidation states of P in
i) H3PO3 ii) Ca3P2 iii) Na3PO4 iv) POF3
5. HF is a liquid while HCl is a gas - Explain.
6. What is the role of depressant in froth flotation process?
7. What is "Polydispersity Index" (PDI)?
8. What is "condensation polymer"? Give an example.
9. What are "food preservatives"? Give an example.
10. Calculate spin only magnetic moments of
a) Fe+2 (aq.) ion b) Cu+2 (aq.) ion
SECTION - B
II. i) Short answer type questions.
ii) Answer any SIX questions.
iii) Each question carries FOUR marks. 6 × 4 = 24
11. What is "catalysis"? How is it classified? Give two examples for each type of catalysis.
12. Define mole fraction. Calculate mole fraction of benzene in solution containing 30% by mass in carbon tetra chloride.
13. Describe two main types of semiconductors. Classify the following as either p-type or n-type semiconductor.
a) Ge doped with In, b) Si doped with B.
14. Explain the following with one example each.
a) Roasting b) Calcination
15. Give the sources of the following vitamins and name the diseases caused by their deficiency. a) A b) K c) E d) D
16. Explain SN1 and SN2 reactions.
17. Using IUPAC norms write the formulae of the following.
i) Hexaamminecobalt (III) chloride
ii) Tetraamminediaquacobalt (III) chloride
iii) Potassiumtetracyanonickelate (II)
iv) Amminebromochloronitrito-N-platinate (II)
18. How does phenol reacts with a) NaOH followed by CO2 & H+.
b) CHCl3 & aq.NaOH
SECTION - C
III. i) Long answer type questions.
ii) Answer any TWO questions.
iii) Each question carries EIGHT marks. 2 × 8 = 16
19. a) State Faraday's laws of electrolysis.
b) What is molecularity of a reaction? How is it different from the 'order' of a reaction? Name one bimolecular and one trimolecular gaseous reactions.
20. a) How is ozone prepared from oxygen? How does it reacts with i) pb S ii) Hg.
b) How are XeF4, XeO3 are prepared? Give their structures.
21. Explain the following reactions with one example each.
a) Rosenmund reduction
b) Gatterman - Koch reaction
c) Sandmeyer reaction
d) Gabriel Pthalimide synthesis.
SECTION - A
I. i) Very short answer type questions.
ii) Answer ALL the questions.
iii) Each question carries TWO marks. 10 × 2 = 20
1. What are "antacids"? Give an example.
2. State "Henry's law".
3. What are pseudo first order reactions? Give an example.
4. What are the oxidation states of P in
i) H3PO3 ii) Ca3P2 iii) Na3PO4 iv) POF3
5. HF is a liquid while HCl is a gas - Explain.
6. What is the role of depressant in froth flotation process?
7. What is "Polydispersity Index" (PDI)?
8. What is "condensation polymer"? Give an example.
9. What are "food preservatives"? Give an example.
10. Calculate spin only magnetic moments of
a) Fe+2 (aq.) ion b) Cu+2 (aq.) ion
SECTION - B
II. i) Short answer type questions.
ii) Answer any SIX questions.
iii) Each question carries FOUR marks. 6 × 4 = 24
11. What is "catalysis"? How is it classified? Give two examples for each type of catalysis.
12. Define mole fraction. Calculate mole fraction of benzene in solution containing 30% by mass in carbon tetra chloride.
13. Describe two main types of semiconductors. Classify the following as either p-type or n-type semiconductor.
a) Ge doped with In, b) Si doped with B.
14. Explain the following with one example each.
a) Roasting b) Calcination
15. Give the sources of the following vitamins and name the diseases caused by their deficiency. a) A b) K c) E d) D
16. Explain SN1 and SN2 reactions.
17. Using IUPAC norms write the formulae of the following.
i) Hexaamminecobalt (III) chloride
ii) Tetraamminediaquacobalt (III) chloride
iii) Potassiumtetracyanonickelate (II)
iv) Amminebromochloronitrito-N-platinate (II)
18. How does phenol reacts with a) NaOH followed by CO2 & H+.
b) CHCl3 & aq.NaOH
SECTION - C
III. i) Long answer type questions.
ii) Answer any TWO questions.
iii) Each question carries EIGHT marks. 2 × 8 = 16
19. a) State Faraday's laws of electrolysis.
b) What is molecularity of a reaction? How is it different from the 'order' of a reaction? Name one bimolecular and one trimolecular gaseous reactions.
20. a) How is ozone prepared from oxygen? How does it reacts with i) pb S ii) Hg.
b) How are XeF4, XeO3 are prepared? Give their structures.
21. Explain the following reactions with one example each.
a) Rosenmund reduction
b) Gatterman - Koch reaction
c) Sandmeyer reaction
d) Gabriel Pthalimide synthesis.
Senior Intermediate Zoology 4 Marks Questions from Chapters 3 and 4
Q: Describe the structure of synovial joint with a neat labelled diagram.
A: i. A typical synovial joint is enclosed by a double layered synovial capsule. Outer layer of synovial capsule is continuous with periosteum and also contains ligaments. Inner layer is known as synovial membrane.
ii. Tips of bones that are enclosed by synovial capsule are covered by a layer of hyaline cartilage.
iii. The cavity enclosed by synovial capsule is known as synovial cavity and is filled with synovial fluid secreted by the synovial membrane.
iv. Synovial fluid acts as a lubricant and allows free movement of bones at the joint.
v. Synovial joints are movable joints.
Q: Give an account of retina of human eye.
A: a. Retina is also known as nervous tunic.
b. It is the inner layer of the eye ball. Its non visual part is formed by pigmented epithelium and visual part by neurons.
c. The neurons are arranged in three layers, namely, photoreceptor layer (rods and cones), bipolar layer and ganglion cell layer.
d. The centre of posterior part of retina is known as yellow spot and the depression present in the centre of yellow spot is known as fovea centralis. It is responsible for sharp and central vision.
e. All axons of ganglion cells exit the eye ball as optic nerve and it ends in the visual cortex of occipital lobe of brain.
f. The point where optic nerve exits the eye ball is known as blind spot (no vision part).
g. When light rays are focussed on retina, they generate impulses in rods and cones. Light induces the dissociation of photo pigments. As a result, action potentials develop in ganglion cells and are transmitted to the brain through the optic nerve, where the images are processed and the image is formed on retina.
Q: What is Cori cycle? Explain the process.
A: During rapid contractions, lactic acid is formed in the muscle. Major part of it is transported to the liver by blood, where it is converted into pyruvic acid and then glucose by gluconeogenesis. This glucose is again transported to the muscle by the blood for use of the muscle. These cyclical events between muscle and liver constitute Cori cycle.
A: i. A typical synovial joint is enclosed by a double layered synovial capsule. Outer layer of synovial capsule is continuous with periosteum and also contains ligaments. Inner layer is known as synovial membrane.
ii. Tips of bones that are enclosed by synovial capsule are covered by a layer of hyaline cartilage.
iii. The cavity enclosed by synovial capsule is known as synovial cavity and is filled with synovial fluid secreted by the synovial membrane.
iv. Synovial fluid acts as a lubricant and allows free movement of bones at the joint.
v. Synovial joints are movable joints.
Q: Give an account of retina of human eye.
A: a. Retina is also known as nervous tunic.
b. It is the inner layer of the eye ball. Its non visual part is formed by pigmented epithelium and visual part by neurons.
c. The neurons are arranged in three layers, namely, photoreceptor layer (rods and cones), bipolar layer and ganglion cell layer.
d. The centre of posterior part of retina is known as yellow spot and the depression present in the centre of yellow spot is known as fovea centralis. It is responsible for sharp and central vision.
e. All axons of ganglion cells exit the eye ball as optic nerve and it ends in the visual cortex of occipital lobe of brain.
f. The point where optic nerve exits the eye ball is known as blind spot (no vision part).
g. When light rays are focussed on retina, they generate impulses in rods and cones. Light induces the dissociation of photo pigments. As a result, action potentials develop in ganglion cells and are transmitted to the brain through the optic nerve, where the images are processed and the image is formed on retina.
Q: What is Cori cycle? Explain the process.
A: During rapid contractions, lactic acid is formed in the muscle. Major part of it is transported to the liver by blood, where it is converted into pyruvic acid and then glucose by gluconeogenesis. This glucose is again transported to the muscle by the blood for use of the muscle. These cyclical events between muscle and liver constitute Cori cycle.
Senior Inter Zoology 2 Marks Important Questions - Chapters 3 and 4
Q: What is triad system?
A: In mammals, sarcolemma of muscle fibre invaginates into sarcoplasm at the A-I junctions and form T - tubules. Each T - tubule is flanked on either side by cisternae of the sarcoplasmic reticulum. T - tubule and the cisternae on its sides form the triad system.
Q: Distinguish between red muscle fibres and white muscle fibres.
A: a. Muscle fibres of some muscles contain large amounts of myoglobin (to store much oxygen) and thus they are red in colour. Such muscle fibres are called red muscle fibres. They have large number of mitochondria to produce more energy (ATP). Red muscles are also called aerobic muscles.
b. Muscle fibres of some muscles contain little amounts of myoglobin and thus they are pale in colour. Such muscle fibres are called white muscle fibres. They have less number of mitochondria. White muscles are also called anaerobic muscles.
Q: Name the key stone bone in cranium and where it is located?
A: a. As the sphenoid bone articulates with all bones of cranium, it is called keystone bone of cranium.
b. Sphenoid is located at the middle part of the base of skull.
Q: Name the type of joints between:
a. Atlanto- axial joint
b. Femur-acetabular joint
A: a. Pivot joint
b. Ball and socket joint.
Q: Name the meninges covering the brain of man.
A: a. Outer duramater
b. Middle arachnoid mater
c. Inner piamater
Q: What is corpus callosum?
A: Corpus callosum is a wide and flat bundle of myelenated nerve fibres beneath the cortex connecting the two cerebral hemispheres in the brain of human beings.
A: In mammals, sarcolemma of muscle fibre invaginates into sarcoplasm at the A-I junctions and form T - tubules. Each T - tubule is flanked on either side by cisternae of the sarcoplasmic reticulum. T - tubule and the cisternae on its sides form the triad system.
Q: Distinguish between red muscle fibres and white muscle fibres.
A: a. Muscle fibres of some muscles contain large amounts of myoglobin (to store much oxygen) and thus they are red in colour. Such muscle fibres are called red muscle fibres. They have large number of mitochondria to produce more energy (ATP). Red muscles are also called aerobic muscles.
b. Muscle fibres of some muscles contain little amounts of myoglobin and thus they are pale in colour. Such muscle fibres are called white muscle fibres. They have less number of mitochondria. White muscles are also called anaerobic muscles.
Q: Name the key stone bone in cranium and where it is located?
A: a. As the sphenoid bone articulates with all bones of cranium, it is called keystone bone of cranium.
b. Sphenoid is located at the middle part of the base of skull.
Q: Name the type of joints between:
a. Atlanto- axial joint
b. Femur-acetabular joint
A: a. Pivot joint
b. Ball and socket joint.
Q: Name the meninges covering the brain of man.
A: a. Outer duramater
b. Middle arachnoid mater
c. Inner piamater
Q: What is corpus callosum?
A: Corpus callosum is a wide and flat bundle of myelenated nerve fibres beneath the cortex connecting the two cerebral hemispheres in the brain of human beings.
Senior Intermediate Zoology Important Questions - 8 Marks
Q: Give a brief account of the structure and functions of human brain. (8 Marks)
A: Human brain is lodged and protected in a bony box in the skull called cranium. Brian is covered by three membranes
called meninges, namely, outer duramater (double layered), middle arachnoid mater and inner piamater (attached to
outer surface of the brain). Duramater and arachnoid mater are separated by subdural space and arachnoid mater and piamater are separated by sub arachnoid space. Subdural space is filled with cerebro spinal fluid (colourless and alkaline). It acts as a shock absorbing medium.
Brain is divisible into three parts, namely, fore brain (procencephalon), mid brain (mesencephalon) and hind brain
(rhombencephalon).
A. Procencephalon: It is the largest and the anterior part of the brain and it consists of olfactory bulbs, cerebrum and diencephalon.
Olfactory bulbs: In the anterior part of the brain, is a pair of olfactory bulbs. They receive the sensory impulses of the smell from Olfactory epithelium.
Cerebrum: It is the largest part of the brain and is divided into two cerebral hemispheres (left and right) by a deep and longitudinal fissure. Beneath the cortex, left and right cerebral hemispheres are connected by transversely arranged bundle of myelenated nerve fibres called corpus callosum. The outer part of the cerebrum is formed by grey matter called cortex and inner part by white matter. Cortex contains nerve cell bodies. Cerebral cortex contains
many folds (gyri) among which, fissures (deep grooves) and sulci (shallow grooves) are present.
Cortex has three functional areas:
i. Sensory areas: receive and interpret sensory impulses.
ii. Motor areas: control voluntary muscular movements.
iii. Association areas: deals with integrative functions (such as memory and communications).
Each cerebral hemisphere is divided into four lobes, namely, frontal lobe, parietal lobe, temporal lobe and occipital lobe.
Diencephalon or thalamencephalon: It has an epithalamus, thalamus and hypothalamus.
i. Epithalamus is non nervous. It is fused with the piamater and forms the anterior choroid plexus. Behind the anterior choroid plexus, is a pineal stalk, which bears a pineal body at the tip.
ii. Thalamus acts as a coordinating centre for sensory and motor signaling.
iii. Hypothalamus ventrally has a hollow outgrowth called infundibulum. It bears the pituitary gland. Infundibulum contains several neurosecretary cells. Hypothalamus acts as and osmoregulatory, thermo regulatory, hunger, thirst and satiety centre.
The amygdala, hippocampus (deep structure of cerebral hemispheres) and inner parts of cerebral hemispheres form the limbic system. Along with hypothalamus, the limbic system is involved in sexual behaviour and emotions.
B. Mesencephalon: It lies beneath the thalamus and pons varoli. Ventrally, it contains pair of longitudinal bands of nervous tissue called crura cerebri. Connect the fore brain and the hind brain. Dorsally, mid brain has two pairs of spherical lobes called corpora quadrigemina (four optic lobes). The anterior pair is called superior colliculi (concerned with vision) and the posterior pair is called inferior colliculi (concerned with hearing).
C. Rhombencephalon: It is formed by cerebellum, pons and medulla oblongata.
i) Cerebellum: It is the second largest part of the brain and is composed of a median vermis and two lateral cerebellar lobes. Each cerebellar lobe contains an anterior and a posterior floccular lobe. The inner white
matter of cerebellum spreads like branching tree. Hence it is called arbor vitae. Cerebellum (little brain or gyroscope of the body) control and coordinate locomotor movements and maintains equilibrium. (damage to cerebellum results in ataxia).
ii) Pons varoli: Beneath the mid brain, just in front of cerebellum and above the medulla oblongata, pons varoli is present. It is in the form of a transverse bridge connecting the two cerebellar lobes. It acts as a relay centre
between cerebellum, spinal cord and the remaining part of brain. It contains a pneumotaxic centre (controls the respiratory muscles).
iii) Medulla oblongata: It is the posterior part of the brain and is continued as spinal cord. Its roof is thin, vascular and is known as the posterior choroid plexus. Medulla oblongata contains cardio vascular and respiratory centres and the centres of swallowing, cough, vomiting, sneezing, hiccupping etc.
Mid brain, pons varoli and medulla oblongata together form the brain stem.
Cavities of brain: Cavities of brain are known as ventricles. The cavities of right and left cerebral hemispheres are known as 1st and 2nd ventricles respectively. They are also known as lateral ventricles or paracoels. Diencephalon third ventricle or diacoel and medulla oblongata contains the fourth ventricle or myelocoel. The two lateral ventricles open into the diacoel through separate openings called foramina of Manro. Diacoel and myelocoel are connected by a narrow tube called iter or ductur Sylvius. Fourth ventricle is continuous with central canal of the spinal cord. All the ventricles are filled with cerebrospinal fluid. It was flushed four times in a day to
remove metabolites and toxins.
A: Human brain is lodged and protected in a bony box in the skull called cranium. Brian is covered by three membranes
called meninges, namely, outer duramater (double layered), middle arachnoid mater and inner piamater (attached to
outer surface of the brain). Duramater and arachnoid mater are separated by subdural space and arachnoid mater and piamater are separated by sub arachnoid space. Subdural space is filled with cerebro spinal fluid (colourless and alkaline). It acts as a shock absorbing medium.
Brain is divisible into three parts, namely, fore brain (procencephalon), mid brain (mesencephalon) and hind brain
(rhombencephalon).
A. Procencephalon: It is the largest and the anterior part of the brain and it consists of olfactory bulbs, cerebrum and diencephalon.
Olfactory bulbs: In the anterior part of the brain, is a pair of olfactory bulbs. They receive the sensory impulses of the smell from Olfactory epithelium.
Cerebrum: It is the largest part of the brain and is divided into two cerebral hemispheres (left and right) by a deep and longitudinal fissure. Beneath the cortex, left and right cerebral hemispheres are connected by transversely arranged bundle of myelenated nerve fibres called corpus callosum. The outer part of the cerebrum is formed by grey matter called cortex and inner part by white matter. Cortex contains nerve cell bodies. Cerebral cortex contains
many folds (gyri) among which, fissures (deep grooves) and sulci (shallow grooves) are present.
Cortex has three functional areas:
i. Sensory areas: receive and interpret sensory impulses.
ii. Motor areas: control voluntary muscular movements.
iii. Association areas: deals with integrative functions (such as memory and communications).
Each cerebral hemisphere is divided into four lobes, namely, frontal lobe, parietal lobe, temporal lobe and occipital lobe.
Diencephalon or thalamencephalon: It has an epithalamus, thalamus and hypothalamus.
i. Epithalamus is non nervous. It is fused with the piamater and forms the anterior choroid plexus. Behind the anterior choroid plexus, is a pineal stalk, which bears a pineal body at the tip.
ii. Thalamus acts as a coordinating centre for sensory and motor signaling.
iii. Hypothalamus ventrally has a hollow outgrowth called infundibulum. It bears the pituitary gland. Infundibulum contains several neurosecretary cells. Hypothalamus acts as and osmoregulatory, thermo regulatory, hunger, thirst and satiety centre.
The amygdala, hippocampus (deep structure of cerebral hemispheres) and inner parts of cerebral hemispheres form the limbic system. Along with hypothalamus, the limbic system is involved in sexual behaviour and emotions.
B. Mesencephalon: It lies beneath the thalamus and pons varoli. Ventrally, it contains pair of longitudinal bands of nervous tissue called crura cerebri. Connect the fore brain and the hind brain. Dorsally, mid brain has two pairs of spherical lobes called corpora quadrigemina (four optic lobes). The anterior pair is called superior colliculi (concerned with vision) and the posterior pair is called inferior colliculi (concerned with hearing).
C. Rhombencephalon: It is formed by cerebellum, pons and medulla oblongata.
i) Cerebellum: It is the second largest part of the brain and is composed of a median vermis and two lateral cerebellar lobes. Each cerebellar lobe contains an anterior and a posterior floccular lobe. The inner white
matter of cerebellum spreads like branching tree. Hence it is called arbor vitae. Cerebellum (little brain or gyroscope of the body) control and coordinate locomotor movements and maintains equilibrium. (damage to cerebellum results in ataxia).
ii) Pons varoli: Beneath the mid brain, just in front of cerebellum and above the medulla oblongata, pons varoli is present. It is in the form of a transverse bridge connecting the two cerebellar lobes. It acts as a relay centre
between cerebellum, spinal cord and the remaining part of brain. It contains a pneumotaxic centre (controls the respiratory muscles).
iii) Medulla oblongata: It is the posterior part of the brain and is continued as spinal cord. Its roof is thin, vascular and is known as the posterior choroid plexus. Medulla oblongata contains cardio vascular and respiratory centres and the centres of swallowing, cough, vomiting, sneezing, hiccupping etc.
Mid brain, pons varoli and medulla oblongata together form the brain stem.
Cavities of brain: Cavities of brain are known as ventricles. The cavities of right and left cerebral hemispheres are known as 1st and 2nd ventricles respectively. They are also known as lateral ventricles or paracoels. Diencephalon third ventricle or diacoel and medulla oblongata contains the fourth ventricle or myelocoel. The two lateral ventricles open into the diacoel through separate openings called foramina of Manro. Diacoel and myelocoel are connected by a narrow tube called iter or ductur Sylvius. Fourth ventricle is continuous with central canal of the spinal cord. All the ventricles are filled with cerebrospinal fluid. It was flushed four times in a day to
remove metabolites and toxins.
BIEAP Senior Inter Exams Time Table - March 2016 Schedule
The Board of Intermediate Education, Government of Andhra Pradesh (BIEAP) has released Senior Intermediate Public Examinations Schedule - March 2016 for Andhra Pradesh students. The IPE Second year exams will start from 12th March and close on 30th March 2016. Here is the schedule of Senior Intermediate Exams - March 2016:
12 March: Second Language
15 March: English
17 March: Maths 2A, Botany, Civics, Psychology
19 March: Maths 2B, Zoology, History
23 March: Physics, Economics, Classical Language
25 March: Chemistry, Commerce, Sociology, Fine Arts, Music
28 March: Geology, Home Science, Public Administration, Other Exams
30 March: Geography, Modern Language
IPE March 2016 Senior Intermediate public examinations will start everyday at 9 AM and finished at 12 PM. The Human Values examination will be held on 27th January 2016 and Environmental Education exam will be conducted on 30th January 2016.
For Senior Intermediate students, practical examinations will be conducted from 4th February to 24th February 2016. Maths bridge course exam for BiPC Second Year students will be held on 28th March 2016. The same exam for first year students will be held on 26th March 2016.
12 March: Second Language
15 March: English
17 March: Maths 2A, Botany, Civics, Psychology
19 March: Maths 2B, Zoology, History
23 March: Physics, Economics, Classical Language
25 March: Chemistry, Commerce, Sociology, Fine Arts, Music
28 March: Geology, Home Science, Public Administration, Other Exams
30 March: Geography, Modern Language
IPE March 2016 Senior Intermediate public examinations will start everyday at 9 AM and finished at 12 PM. The Human Values examination will be held on 27th January 2016 and Environmental Education exam will be conducted on 30th January 2016.
For Senior Intermediate students, practical examinations will be conducted from 4th February to 24th February 2016. Maths bridge course exam for BiPC Second Year students will be held on 28th March 2016. The same exam for first year students will be held on 26th March 2016.
Senior Inter Botany - 2 Marks Questions from Plant Physiology
Q: Compare imbibing capacity of Pea seeds and Wheat seeds.
A: Pea seeds store proteins in its cotyledons. Wheat seeds store starch in the endosperm. The imbibing capacity of proteins is very high when compared to the starch (carbohydrates).
Q: In general in a plant which path of water movement is more and why?
A: There are 2 kinds of distinct pathways of water movement in the plants.
1) Apoplast Pathway
2) Symplast Pathway
Apoplastic movement of water occurs through the cell walls and intercellular places. It does not involves any crossing the cell membranes. Whereas symplast pathway occurs through the cytoplasm, plasmamembrane and
plasmodesmata. Hence Apoplast path of water movement in the plants is faster.
Q: Which structures do you think the Pinus plant does not possess due to which its seeds fail to germinate?
A: Pinus plant does not possess root hairs. So it can not absorb water on its own.
Q: What do you think is the driving force for ascent of sap?
A: Transpiration pull is the driving force ascent of sap.
Q: Why do stomata close under water stress conditions?
A: When there is insufficient water in the soil, plants are subjected to water stress. Then Abscisic Acid (ABA) is produced more and it induces the stomatal closure.
Q: How are stomata distributed in a typical monocot plant?
A: A typical monocot leaf has stomata on upper and lower epidermis. Such leaf is said to be Amphistomatic. The number of stomata is same on either side. So it can also be called isobilateral leaf.
Q: In what form the sugars are transported through Phloem?
A: Sugars are transported through Phloem in the form of sucrose.
Q: The inward movement of water into a plant begins either as symplast or apoplast. How does it conclude before entering into xylem?
A: The movement of water through the root layers from epidermis to cortex (endodermis) may be apoplastic or symplastic. But ultimately it is symplastic in the endodermis and pericycle, before entering into xylem.
Q: Why does the root endodermis transports ions in one direction only?
A: As mineral ions are dissolved in water the root endodermis transports ions in one direction only.
Q: Pressure potential in plant systems can be negative. Elaborate.
A: Pressure potential in plant systems can be some times negative - when the plants loose water by transpiration inspite of insufficient water in the soil.
Q: How does ABA bring about the closure of stomata under water stress conditions?
A: Under water stress conditions ABA (natural antitranspirant) closes the stomata by
1) changing the permeability of plasma membrane
2) driving out K+ ions out of guard cells.
A: Pea seeds store proteins in its cotyledons. Wheat seeds store starch in the endosperm. The imbibing capacity of proteins is very high when compared to the starch (carbohydrates).
Q: In general in a plant which path of water movement is more and why?
A: There are 2 kinds of distinct pathways of water movement in the plants.
1) Apoplast Pathway
2) Symplast Pathway
Apoplastic movement of water occurs through the cell walls and intercellular places. It does not involves any crossing the cell membranes. Whereas symplast pathway occurs through the cytoplasm, plasmamembrane and
plasmodesmata. Hence Apoplast path of water movement in the plants is faster.
Q: Which structures do you think the Pinus plant does not possess due to which its seeds fail to germinate?
A: Pinus plant does not possess root hairs. So it can not absorb water on its own.
Q: What do you think is the driving force for ascent of sap?
A: Transpiration pull is the driving force ascent of sap.
Q: Why do stomata close under water stress conditions?
A: When there is insufficient water in the soil, plants are subjected to water stress. Then Abscisic Acid (ABA) is produced more and it induces the stomatal closure.
Q: How are stomata distributed in a typical monocot plant?
A: A typical monocot leaf has stomata on upper and lower epidermis. Such leaf is said to be Amphistomatic. The number of stomata is same on either side. So it can also be called isobilateral leaf.
Q: In what form the sugars are transported through Phloem?
A: Sugars are transported through Phloem in the form of sucrose.
Q: The inward movement of water into a plant begins either as symplast or apoplast. How does it conclude before entering into xylem?
A: The movement of water through the root layers from epidermis to cortex (endodermis) may be apoplastic or symplastic. But ultimately it is symplastic in the endodermis and pericycle, before entering into xylem.
Q: Why does the root endodermis transports ions in one direction only?
A: As mineral ions are dissolved in water the root endodermis transports ions in one direction only.
Q: Pressure potential in plant systems can be negative. Elaborate.
A: Pressure potential in plant systems can be some times negative - when the plants loose water by transpiration inspite of insufficient water in the soil.
Q: How does ABA bring about the closure of stomata under water stress conditions?
A: Under water stress conditions ABA (natural antitranspirant) closes the stomata by
1) changing the permeability of plasma membrane
2) driving out K+ ions out of guard cells.
Senior Inter Botany - 4 Marks Important Questions - Plant Physiology
Q: ''Transpiration is a necessary evil". Explain.
A: Though excessive transpiration retards growth of the plant and plants show permanent wilting, transpiration is beneficial to plants in many ways like
1) It helps in passive absorption of minerals and water.
2) It provides necessary force to pull the water during ascent of sap.
3) It regulates the temperature of the plant body.
4) It gives cooling effect.
Hence transpiration is a necessary evil.
Q: A gardener forgot to water a potted plant for a day in summer. What will happen to the plant? Do you think it is reversible? Explain.
A: The plant shows wilting. It is reversible. If the plant is again watered, it becomes normal. That wilting showed by the plant is temporary. If the plant is not watered, it becomes wilted permanent.
Q: Explain the type of molecular movement which is highly selective and requires special membrane proteins, but does not require any metabolic energy.
A: Hydrophilic substances or molecules are transported through the membrane proteins called Porins. The movement is highly selective. Porins are specific, special proteins present in the membrane which help in the facilitated transport without the expenditure of energy. It may be uniport, symport or antiport. It may be shown as follows.
1) Molecules move through the carrier independently in one direction. Ex: H+
2) Two molecules move in opposite direction.
Ex: Inward movement of H+ Outward movement of Na+
3) Two molecules move in the same direction. Ex: 1) H+, NO3 − 2) H+, Cl − 3) H+, PO4−
Q: How does most of the water move within a healthy plant body and by which path?
A: Water moves within a healthy plant body takes place through Xylem by apoplast pathway.
Q: Transpiration and Photosynthesis, a compromise. Explain.
A: Surface of the lamina is related to the rate of transpiration and photosynthesis.
1) If the lamina is large the rate of transpiration is more. If transpiration is more it may cause insufficient supply of water which further affects photosynthesis.
2) Lamina is reduced to reduce the rate of transpiration. In such case, rate of photosynthesis will also reduce as the lamina is narrow. Thus, plant has to survive by making a compromise between transpiration and photosynthesis.
Q: Do different species of plants growing in the same area show the same rate of transpiration at a particular time. Justify your comment.
A: The same area may be inhabited by different species belonging to mesophytes, xerophytes, dicots and monocots. If there is a pond, hydrophytes also grow there. Though they grow in the same area the rate of transpiration is not same because
1) Mesophytes- The rate of transpiration is more
2) Xerophytes- The rate of transpiration or amount of transpiration is less.
3) Hydrophytes show very less or no transpiration.
A: Though excessive transpiration retards growth of the plant and plants show permanent wilting, transpiration is beneficial to plants in many ways like
1) It helps in passive absorption of minerals and water.
2) It provides necessary force to pull the water during ascent of sap.
3) It regulates the temperature of the plant body.
4) It gives cooling effect.
Hence transpiration is a necessary evil.
Q: A gardener forgot to water a potted plant for a day in summer. What will happen to the plant? Do you think it is reversible? Explain.
A: The plant shows wilting. It is reversible. If the plant is again watered, it becomes normal. That wilting showed by the plant is temporary. If the plant is not watered, it becomes wilted permanent.
Q: Explain the type of molecular movement which is highly selective and requires special membrane proteins, but does not require any metabolic energy.
A: Hydrophilic substances or molecules are transported through the membrane proteins called Porins. The movement is highly selective. Porins are specific, special proteins present in the membrane which help in the facilitated transport without the expenditure of energy. It may be uniport, symport or antiport. It may be shown as follows.
1) Molecules move through the carrier independently in one direction. Ex: H+
2) Two molecules move in opposite direction.
Ex: Inward movement of H+ Outward movement of Na+
3) Two molecules move in the same direction. Ex: 1) H+, NO3 − 2) H+, Cl − 3) H+, PO4−
Q: How does most of the water move within a healthy plant body and by which path?
A: Water moves within a healthy plant body takes place through Xylem by apoplast pathway.
Q: Transpiration and Photosynthesis, a compromise. Explain.
A: Surface of the lamina is related to the rate of transpiration and photosynthesis.
1) If the lamina is large the rate of transpiration is more. If transpiration is more it may cause insufficient supply of water which further affects photosynthesis.
2) Lamina is reduced to reduce the rate of transpiration. In such case, rate of photosynthesis will also reduce as the lamina is narrow. Thus, plant has to survive by making a compromise between transpiration and photosynthesis.
Q: Do different species of plants growing in the same area show the same rate of transpiration at a particular time. Justify your comment.
A: The same area may be inhabited by different species belonging to mesophytes, xerophytes, dicots and monocots. If there is a pond, hydrophytes also grow there. Though they grow in the same area the rate of transpiration is not same because
1) Mesophytes- The rate of transpiration is more
2) Xerophytes- The rate of transpiration or amount of transpiration is less.
3) Hydrophytes show very less or no transpiration.
Sr Inter Botany Important Questions - Plant Physiology
Q: What is meant by plasmolysis? How is it practically useful to us?
A: The outside movement of water from the cell during which plasma membrane shrinks is called plasmolysis or exosmosis or negative osmosis or Anosmosis or reverse osmosis. It occurs when a cell is kept in hypertonic solution as follows.
1. Water is first lost from the cytoplasm.
2. Then water from the vacuole is lost.
3. Protoplast shrinks.
4. Vacuole becomes smaller.
5. Plasma membrane separates from the cell wall, first in the corners. It is called incipient plasmolysis. The cell that looses water is said to be plasmolysed or flaccid cell. In such cells cell sap becomes hypertonic.
6. Hypertonic solution is seen between cell wall and plasma membrane.
It occurs when there is water stress or in saline environments. The principle of plasmolysis is useful in making
1) Jellys 2) Pickles 3) Raisins 4) Jams.
Q: Stomata are turgor operated valves. Explain.
A: Stoma is an elliptical pore in the epidermis. It is protected by 2 kidney shaped guard cells. The inner wall of each guard cell, towards the pore is thick and outer wall towards the subsidiary cells is thin, convex
and elastic. Guard cells have chloroplasts. The cell walls have cellulosic microfibrils oriented radially.
According to Levitt's K+ Pump Theory active Efflux of H+ leads to passive influx of K+ and Cl −. Water potential value of guard cells decreases. Endosmosis occurs. Guard cells become turgid. Outer thin walls of guard cells expand outwardly and become more convex. It forces the inner walls into a crescent shape. Stoma opens. At night, Efflux of K+ and Cl− occurs. In turn influx of H+ occurs water potential increases. Exosmosis occurs. Guard cells
become flaccid. Stoma closes. Thus the turgidity of the guard cells controls the movement of stomata. Hence we can say that stoma is a turgor operated valve.
Q: Explain pressure flow hypothesis of translocation of sugars in plants.
A: Girdling experiment proves that food materials are translocated through phloem. Food is conducted in the form of sucrose. It occurs between source (Leaf) and sink (Root). Source is one but sink may be any non-photosynthetic organ. So the conduction of food is multidirectional. Munch (German) proposed Mass flow/ Pressure flow hypothesis to explain translocation of Sugars. It occurs according to Turgor Pressure gradient (from higher T.P. to lower
t.p.).
It is explained in 2 steps:
1. Phloem Loading: Sucrose moves into sieve tube cells through companion cells, by active transport. The solution in phloem becomes hypertonic. Water moves from Xylem moves into Phloem by osmosis. ψ in phloem increases. T.P. becomes more. Then sugars move from source to sink.
2. Phloem Unloading: At sink sucrose is unloaded. It results increase in Mass at sink. Sucrose is converted to starch or utilised in sink. ψ increases. It pushes the water in the Xylem towards source.
A: The outside movement of water from the cell during which plasma membrane shrinks is called plasmolysis or exosmosis or negative osmosis or Anosmosis or reverse osmosis. It occurs when a cell is kept in hypertonic solution as follows.
1. Water is first lost from the cytoplasm.
2. Then water from the vacuole is lost.
3. Protoplast shrinks.
4. Vacuole becomes smaller.
5. Plasma membrane separates from the cell wall, first in the corners. It is called incipient plasmolysis. The cell that looses water is said to be plasmolysed or flaccid cell. In such cells cell sap becomes hypertonic.
6. Hypertonic solution is seen between cell wall and plasma membrane.
It occurs when there is water stress or in saline environments. The principle of plasmolysis is useful in making
1) Jellys 2) Pickles 3) Raisins 4) Jams.
Q: Stomata are turgor operated valves. Explain.
A: Stoma is an elliptical pore in the epidermis. It is protected by 2 kidney shaped guard cells. The inner wall of each guard cell, towards the pore is thick and outer wall towards the subsidiary cells is thin, convex
and elastic. Guard cells have chloroplasts. The cell walls have cellulosic microfibrils oriented radially.
According to Levitt's K+ Pump Theory active Efflux of H+ leads to passive influx of K+ and Cl −. Water potential value of guard cells decreases. Endosmosis occurs. Guard cells become turgid. Outer thin walls of guard cells expand outwardly and become more convex. It forces the inner walls into a crescent shape. Stoma opens. At night, Efflux of K+ and Cl− occurs. In turn influx of H+ occurs water potential increases. Exosmosis occurs. Guard cells
become flaccid. Stoma closes. Thus the turgidity of the guard cells controls the movement of stomata. Hence we can say that stoma is a turgor operated valve.
Q: Explain pressure flow hypothesis of translocation of sugars in plants.
A: Girdling experiment proves that food materials are translocated through phloem. Food is conducted in the form of sucrose. It occurs between source (Leaf) and sink (Root). Source is one but sink may be any non-photosynthetic organ. So the conduction of food is multidirectional. Munch (German) proposed Mass flow/ Pressure flow hypothesis to explain translocation of Sugars. It occurs according to Turgor Pressure gradient (from higher T.P. to lower
t.p.).
It is explained in 2 steps:
1. Phloem Loading: Sucrose moves into sieve tube cells through companion cells, by active transport. The solution in phloem becomes hypertonic. Water moves from Xylem moves into Phloem by osmosis. ψ in phloem increases. T.P. becomes more. Then sugars move from source to sink.
2. Phloem Unloading: At sink sucrose is unloaded. It results increase in Mass at sink. Sucrose is converted to starch or utilised in sink. ψ increases. It pushes the water in the Xylem towards source.
Senior Inter Economics Model Paper for IPE Exams in Telangana and Andhra Pradesh
Here is the Senior Intermediate Economics Model question paper for AP and Telangana students. The Intermediate examinations (IPE) will commence soon and the model paper is useful for the students of both the states. The duration is 3 hours and maximum marks allotted are 100. Section A and Section C gives 30 marks each and Section B is allotted 40 marks thus making a total of 100 marks. See the model paper below:
Section - A
I. i) Answer any THREE out of the following five questions.
ii) Every answer may be limited to 40 lines.
iii) Each question carries TEN marks. 3 × 10 = 30
1. India is a developing economy. Discuss.
2. What are the causes for inequalities in the distribution of income of wealth? Suggest some measures.
3. What are the causes for low productivity in agriculture? Suggest some measures to improve it.
4. What are the causes for rural indebtedness? Suggest measures to reduce it.
5. Critically explain the 1991 Industrial Policy.
SECTION - B
II. i) Answer any EIGHT out of the following twelve questions.
ii) Every answer may be limited to 20 lines.
iii) Each question carries FIVE marks. 8 × 5 = 40
6. What are the factors influencing economic development?
7. Distinguish between economic growth and Economic Development.
8. Explain GATT. Explain the objective of GATT.
9. Explain the theory of demographic transitation.
10. What is the role of education in rural development?
11. What are the different types of unemployment?
12. Explain reasons for poor performance of land reforms in India.
13. Explain the defect in agricultural marketing in India?
14. Explain 1948 Industrial policy resolution.
15. Explain the causes of regional imbalance in India.
16. Write a Note on Arogya Sree, 108, 104.
17. Write a Note on Material balance model.
SECTION - C
III. i) Answer any FIFTEEN out of the following twenty.
ii) Every answer may be limited to 5 lines.
iii) Each question carries TWO marks. 15 × 2 = 30
18. Planning commission definition of developing country
19. Economic growth
20. Liberalisation
21. Poverty gap
22. Urbanisation
23. Green Revolution
24. Eco-system
25. Industrial estate
26. Rythu Bazar
27. ICICI
28. Mixed recall period
29. Civil aviation
30. National income
31. Per capita income
32. Great dividing year of population
33. Disguised Unemployment
34. Backward States in India
35. Regional imbalance
36. e-waste
37. Science and technology
Section - A
I. i) Answer any THREE out of the following five questions.
ii) Every answer may be limited to 40 lines.
iii) Each question carries TEN marks. 3 × 10 = 30
1. India is a developing economy. Discuss.
2. What are the causes for inequalities in the distribution of income of wealth? Suggest some measures.
3. What are the causes for low productivity in agriculture? Suggest some measures to improve it.
4. What are the causes for rural indebtedness? Suggest measures to reduce it.
5. Critically explain the 1991 Industrial Policy.
SECTION - B
II. i) Answer any EIGHT out of the following twelve questions.
ii) Every answer may be limited to 20 lines.
iii) Each question carries FIVE marks. 8 × 5 = 40
6. What are the factors influencing economic development?
7. Distinguish between economic growth and Economic Development.
8. Explain GATT. Explain the objective of GATT.
9. Explain the theory of demographic transitation.
10. What is the role of education in rural development?
11. What are the different types of unemployment?
12. Explain reasons for poor performance of land reforms in India.
13. Explain the defect in agricultural marketing in India?
14. Explain 1948 Industrial policy resolution.
15. Explain the causes of regional imbalance in India.
16. Write a Note on Arogya Sree, 108, 104.
17. Write a Note on Material balance model.
SECTION - C
III. i) Answer any FIFTEEN out of the following twenty.
ii) Every answer may be limited to 5 lines.
iii) Each question carries TWO marks. 15 × 2 = 30
18. Planning commission definition of developing country
19. Economic growth
20. Liberalisation
21. Poverty gap
22. Urbanisation
23. Green Revolution
24. Eco-system
25. Industrial estate
26. Rythu Bazar
27. ICICI
28. Mixed recall period
29. Civil aviation
30. National income
31. Per capita income
32. Great dividing year of population
33. Disguised Unemployment
34. Backward States in India
35. Regional imbalance
36. e-waste
37. Science and technology
Senior Inter Zoology Human Reproduction Chapter Summary
1. Testes: There is a pair of oval, pinkish testes, that lie outside the abdominal cavity, in special pouch called scrotum [because in scrotum the temperature is less than (2°C - 2.5°C) that of abdomen, which is necessary for spermatogenesis]. The cavity of scrotum is connected to the abdominal cavity through inguinal canal. Tests are held in position in scrotum by spermatic cords (extends between testes and abdomen) and gubernaculum. Each spermatic cord is formed by an artery, a vein, a nerve and other tissues.
A testis is enclosed by a tunica vaginalis. Below the tunica vaginalis is a fibrous sheath called tunica albuginea. It projects inwards as septa and divides the testis into many lobules. Each lobule contains 1 - 3 highly coiled seminiferous tubules. They are lined by germinal epithelium. Germinal epithelial cells divide and form spermatogonia (sperm mother cells). They divide further and produce primary spermatocytes. These primary spermatocytes undergo meiotic divisions and form the sperms/ spermatozoa [The process of formation of sperms is known as spermatogenesis].
Among the germinal epithelial cells, sertoli cells. They provide nutrition for developing sperms and secrete a hormone called inhibin, which inhibits the secretion of FSH. Among the seminiferous tubules, there are Leading cells, or interstial cells. They secrete testosterone. It is necessary for the development of secondary sexual characters in male. Seminiferous tubules open into the vasa efferentia. Through a network of minute tubules called rete testis.
2. Epididymis: It is a long, narrow and highly, coiled present along the posterior surface of each kidney. In epididymis, sperms are stored, where the mature epididymis is divisible into three parts, namely, caput epididymis (receives sperms through vasa efferentia), corpus epididymis (connects caput epididymis and cauda epididymis) and cauda epididymis (it is attached to the scrotum through gubernaculum).
3. Vasa deferentia: The long narrow, muscular tube arising from the cauda epididymis is the vas deferns. The inner lining of vas diferens is formed by pseudostratified epithelium and lamina propria (areolar tissue). Vas deferens passes through the inguinal canal, loops over the urinary bladder, receives a duct from seminal vesicle and become an ejaculatory duct. The ejaculatory ducts of both sides converge and opens into the urethra.
4. Urethra: It is the common passage for urine and sperms. It originates in the urinary bladder, receiver the ejaculatory ducts, passes through the penis and opens out through urethral meatus.
5. Penis: Penis is the copulatory organ that transfers the sperms to the vagina of female. It is formed by two dorsal (corpora cavernosa) and a ventral (corpus spongiosum) columns of special tissue that helps in erection. The enlarged tip of the penis is called glans penis, which is covered by loose skin called prepuce. Urethra lies in corpus spongiosum.
6. Accessory glands:
a. Seminal vesicles: Near the posterior part of urinary bladder there is a pair of simple tubular glands known as seminal vesicles. Each seminal vesicle opens into the corresponding vas deferens. Seminal vesicles secrete about 60% of the seminal fluid. It is an alkaline, viscous fluid that contains prostaglandins, fructose, proteins, citric acid, inorganic phosphorus and potassium. Prostaglandins cause the mucus lining of cervix to be more receptive to the sperms and activate sperms fructose is the energy source for sperms.
b. Prostate gland: It lies beneath the urinary bladder. It surrounds the urethra and sends its secretions into it. Prostate secretion forms 15 - 30% of seminal fluid. It activates the sperms and provides nutrition.
c. Bulbo urethral glands/ Cowper's glands: Behind the prostate gland, at the beginning of penis, is a pair of Cowper's glands. The secretions of these glands are alkaline, lubricates the urethra and makes it alkaline by fluship out the acidic urine residues.
A testis is enclosed by a tunica vaginalis. Below the tunica vaginalis is a fibrous sheath called tunica albuginea. It projects inwards as septa and divides the testis into many lobules. Each lobule contains 1 - 3 highly coiled seminiferous tubules. They are lined by germinal epithelium. Germinal epithelial cells divide and form spermatogonia (sperm mother cells). They divide further and produce primary spermatocytes. These primary spermatocytes undergo meiotic divisions and form the sperms/ spermatozoa [The process of formation of sperms is known as spermatogenesis].
Among the germinal epithelial cells, sertoli cells. They provide nutrition for developing sperms and secrete a hormone called inhibin, which inhibits the secretion of FSH. Among the seminiferous tubules, there are Leading cells, or interstial cells. They secrete testosterone. It is necessary for the development of secondary sexual characters in male. Seminiferous tubules open into the vasa efferentia. Through a network of minute tubules called rete testis.
2. Epididymis: It is a long, narrow and highly, coiled present along the posterior surface of each kidney. In epididymis, sperms are stored, where the mature epididymis is divisible into three parts, namely, caput epididymis (receives sperms through vasa efferentia), corpus epididymis (connects caput epididymis and cauda epididymis) and cauda epididymis (it is attached to the scrotum through gubernaculum).
3. Vasa deferentia: The long narrow, muscular tube arising from the cauda epididymis is the vas deferns. The inner lining of vas diferens is formed by pseudostratified epithelium and lamina propria (areolar tissue). Vas deferens passes through the inguinal canal, loops over the urinary bladder, receives a duct from seminal vesicle and become an ejaculatory duct. The ejaculatory ducts of both sides converge and opens into the urethra.
4. Urethra: It is the common passage for urine and sperms. It originates in the urinary bladder, receiver the ejaculatory ducts, passes through the penis and opens out through urethral meatus.
5. Penis: Penis is the copulatory organ that transfers the sperms to the vagina of female. It is formed by two dorsal (corpora cavernosa) and a ventral (corpus spongiosum) columns of special tissue that helps in erection. The enlarged tip of the penis is called glans penis, which is covered by loose skin called prepuce. Urethra lies in corpus spongiosum.
6. Accessory glands:
a. Seminal vesicles: Near the posterior part of urinary bladder there is a pair of simple tubular glands known as seminal vesicles. Each seminal vesicle opens into the corresponding vas deferens. Seminal vesicles secrete about 60% of the seminal fluid. It is an alkaline, viscous fluid that contains prostaglandins, fructose, proteins, citric acid, inorganic phosphorus and potassium. Prostaglandins cause the mucus lining of cervix to be more receptive to the sperms and activate sperms fructose is the energy source for sperms.
b. Prostate gland: It lies beneath the urinary bladder. It surrounds the urethra and sends its secretions into it. Prostate secretion forms 15 - 30% of seminal fluid. It activates the sperms and provides nutrition.
c. Bulbo urethral glands/ Cowper's glands: Behind the prostate gland, at the beginning of penis, is a pair of Cowper's glands. The secretions of these glands are alkaline, lubricates the urethra and makes it alkaline by fluship out the acidic urine residues.
Senior Inter Botany - Transport of Plants Imp Questions
Q: Explain pressure flow hypothesis of translocation of sugars in plants?
A: Phloem transports food (sucrose) from the source to the sink in the form of sap. Source (leaf) and sink (other parts and storage organs) relationship is variable. Phloem sap consists water, sucrose, other sugars, hormones and amino acids. The translocation in phoem is bidirectional as source-sink relationship
is variable. The transport in phloem is explained by pressure flow hypothesis. It was proposed by Munch.
It is also called Mass flow hypothesis. It occurs in 2 steps.
(1) Loading (2) Unloading.
Loading of Phloem:
1. Glucose in the mesophyll cells (source) is converted to sucrose.
2. Sucrose moves to companion cells.
3. It moves from there to sieve tube cells by active transport.
4. Concentration of sap in these cells become hypertonic.
5. Water from Xylem cells moves by osmosis into sieve tube cells.
6. Mass and Pressure increase.
Unloading:
1. As mass increases in sieve tube cells, pressure flow begins.
2. Sugars in the sink are used up.
3. Sap in the cells become hypotonic.
4. Water moves out of the phoem.
5. Water potential gradient is established between sink and source.
6. Sugars are unloaded. They move into the cells which use sugar.
A: Phloem transports food (sucrose) from the source to the sink in the form of sap. Source (leaf) and sink (other parts and storage organs) relationship is variable. Phloem sap consists water, sucrose, other sugars, hormones and amino acids. The translocation in phoem is bidirectional as source-sink relationship
is variable. The transport in phloem is explained by pressure flow hypothesis. It was proposed by Munch.
It is also called Mass flow hypothesis. It occurs in 2 steps.
(1) Loading (2) Unloading.
Loading of Phloem:
1. Glucose in the mesophyll cells (source) is converted to sucrose.
2. Sucrose moves to companion cells.
3. It moves from there to sieve tube cells by active transport.
4. Concentration of sap in these cells become hypertonic.
5. Water from Xylem cells moves by osmosis into sieve tube cells.
6. Mass and Pressure increase.
Unloading:
1. As mass increases in sieve tube cells, pressure flow begins.
2. Sugars in the sink are used up.
3. Sap in the cells become hypotonic.
4. Water moves out of the phoem.
5. Water potential gradient is established between sink and source.
6. Sugars are unloaded. They move into the cells which use sugar.
IPE Botany Senior Inter Important Questions - LAQs from New Syllabus
Long answer type questions (8 marks) will be asked in IPE exams for Senior Intermediate students of Andhra Pradesh. Here are some important long answer type questions as per the new syllabus useful for AP and Telangana students.
1. Define transpiration. Explain the structure and mechanism of opening and closing of stomata.
2. Explain the nitrogen cycle giving relevant examples.
3. Give an account of glycolysis. Where does it occur? What are the end products? Trace the fate of these products in both aerobic and anaerobic respiration.
4. Explain the reactions of Krebs cycle.
5. List five natural plant growth regulators. Write a note on discovery, physiological functions and agricultural/horticultural applications of any one of them.
6. Explain briefly the various processes of recombinant DNA technology.
7. Give a brief account of the tools of recombinant DNA technology.
8. Give an account of bio-technological applications in agriculture and other fields.
9. You are a botanist working in the area of plant breeding. Describe the various steps that you will undertake to release a new variety.
10. Describe the tissue culture technique and what are the advantages of tissue culture over conventional method of plant breeding in crop improvement programmes?
1. Define transpiration. Explain the structure and mechanism of opening and closing of stomata.
2. Explain the nitrogen cycle giving relevant examples.
3. Give an account of glycolysis. Where does it occur? What are the end products? Trace the fate of these products in both aerobic and anaerobic respiration.
4. Explain the reactions of Krebs cycle.
5. List five natural plant growth regulators. Write a note on discovery, physiological functions and agricultural/horticultural applications of any one of them.
6. Explain briefly the various processes of recombinant DNA technology.
7. Give a brief account of the tools of recombinant DNA technology.
8. Give an account of bio-technological applications in agriculture and other fields.
9. You are a botanist working in the area of plant breeding. Describe the various steps that you will undertake to release a new variety.
10. Describe the tissue culture technique and what are the advantages of tissue culture over conventional method of plant breeding in crop improvement programmes?
Senior Inter Botany Important Questions - SAQs from New Syllabus
Following are Short answer type questions (4 marks) for Senior Intermediate Botany as per the new syllabus of BIEAP, Andhra Pradesh. The question also useful for Telangana students from next year.
1. Define and explain water potential.
2. What is meant by plasmolysis? How is it practically useful to us?
3. “Transpiration is a necessary evil”. Explain.
4. Explain the steps involved in the formation of root nodule.
5. Explain how pH affects enzyme activity with the help of a graphical representation.
6. Write briefly about enzyme inhibitors.
7. With the help of diagram, explain briefly the process of cyclic photophosphorylation.
8. Explain the structure of chloroplast? Draw a neat labelled diagram.
9. Write a note on agricultural and horticultural applications of auxins.
10. Write short notes on seed dormancy.
11. Write any four physiological effects of cytokinins in plants.
12. Explain the importance of microbiology.
13. How are bacteria classified on the basis of morphology?
14. How are bacteria classified on the basis of number and distribution of flagella?
15. Explain the conjugation in bacteria.
16. What is ICTV? How are viruses named?
17. Explain the structure of TMV.
18. Explain the structure of T-even bacteriophages.
19. Explain the lytic cycle with reference to certain viruses.
20. Mention the differences between lytic and lysogenic cycles.
21. Mention the advantages of selecting pea plant for experiment by Mendel.
22. Explain the law of dominance using a monohybrid cross.
23. Define and design a test cross.
24. How many types of RNA polymerases exist in cells? Write their names and functions.
25. What are the differences between DNA and RNA.
26. Write the important features of Genetic code.
27. Write short notes on restriction enzymes.
28. What are the different methods of insertion of recombinant DNA into the host cell?
29. List out the beneficial aspects of transgenic plants.
30. Write notes on green revolution and gene revolution.
1. Define and explain water potential.
2. What is meant by plasmolysis? How is it practically useful to us?
3. “Transpiration is a necessary evil”. Explain.
4. Explain the steps involved in the formation of root nodule.
5. Explain how pH affects enzyme activity with the help of a graphical representation.
6. Write briefly about enzyme inhibitors.
7. With the help of diagram, explain briefly the process of cyclic photophosphorylation.
8. Explain the structure of chloroplast? Draw a neat labelled diagram.
9. Write a note on agricultural and horticultural applications of auxins.
10. Write short notes on seed dormancy.
11. Write any four physiological effects of cytokinins in plants.
12. Explain the importance of microbiology.
13. How are bacteria classified on the basis of morphology?
14. How are bacteria classified on the basis of number and distribution of flagella?
15. Explain the conjugation in bacteria.
16. What is ICTV? How are viruses named?
17. Explain the structure of TMV.
18. Explain the structure of T-even bacteriophages.
19. Explain the lytic cycle with reference to certain viruses.
20. Mention the differences between lytic and lysogenic cycles.
21. Mention the advantages of selecting pea plant for experiment by Mendel.
22. Explain the law of dominance using a monohybrid cross.
23. Define and design a test cross.
24. How many types of RNA polymerases exist in cells? Write their names and functions.
25. What are the differences between DNA and RNA.
26. Write the important features of Genetic code.
27. Write short notes on restriction enzymes.
28. What are the different methods of insertion of recombinant DNA into the host cell?
29. List out the beneficial aspects of transgenic plants.
30. Write notes on green revolution and gene revolution.
Botany Imp Questions for IPE - Senior Inter VSAQs as per New Syllabus
1. What is a plasmid? What is its significance?
2. What is conjugation? Who discovered it and in which organism?
3. What is transformation? Who discovered it and in which organism?
4. What is transduction? Who discovered it and in which organism?
5. What is the shape of T¬4 phage? What is its genetic material?
6. What are virulent phages? Given an example.
7. Define lysis and burst size with reference to viruses and their effects on host cells.
8. What are temperate phages? Give one example.
9. Mention the differences between virulent phages and temperate phages.
10. Who proposed the chromosome theory of inheritance?
11. What is point mutation? Give an example.
12. Explain the terms phenotype and genotype.
13. Distinguish between heterochromatin and euchromatin. Which of the two is transcriptionally active?
14. Who proved that DNA is genetic material? What is the organism they worked on?
15. Given below is the sequence of coding strand of DNA in a transcription unit 3’-AATGCAGCTATTAGG-5’
Write the sequence of
a) Its complementary strand
b) The mRNA
16. What is the difference between exons and introns?
17. What is meant by capping and tailing?
18. In a typical DNA molecule, the proportion of Thymine is 30% of the N bases. Find out the percentages of other N bases.
19. The proportion of nucleotides in a given nucleic acid is: Adenine 18%, Guanine 30%, Cytosine 42% and Uracil 10%. Name the nucleic acid and mention the number of strands in it.
20. What are molecular scissors? Where are they obtained from?
21. Name any two artificially restructured plasmids.
22. What is EcoRI? How does it function?
23. What are cloning vectors? Give an example.
24. Name the nematode that infects the roots of tobacco plants. Name the strategy adopted to prevent this infestation.
25. Give one example for each of transgenic plants which are suitable for food processing and those with improved nutritional quality.
26. What is meant by ‘hidden hunger’?
27. Name two semi-dwarf varieties of rice developed in India.
28. Give two examples of wheat varieties introduced in India which are high yielding and disease resistant.
29. Give two examples of fungi used in SCP production.
30. What is emasculation? Why and when is it done?
31. Give any two important contributions of Dr. M.S. Swaminathan.
32. Which two species of sugarcane were crossed for better yield?
33. Why does Swiss cheese have big holes? Name the bacteria responsible for it.
34. Name a microbe used for statin production. How do statins lower blood cholesterol level?
35. Give any two microbes that are useful in bio technology.
36. Name any two genetically modified crops.
37. Name any two industrially important enzymes.
38. In which food would you find lactic acid bacteria? Name the bacterium.
39. Name any two fungi which are used in the production of antibiotics.
40. Name the scientists who were credited for showing the role of penicillin as an antibiotic.
2. What is conjugation? Who discovered it and in which organism?
3. What is transformation? Who discovered it and in which organism?
4. What is transduction? Who discovered it and in which organism?
5. What is the shape of T¬4 phage? What is its genetic material?
6. What are virulent phages? Given an example.
7. Define lysis and burst size with reference to viruses and their effects on host cells.
8. What are temperate phages? Give one example.
9. Mention the differences between virulent phages and temperate phages.
10. Who proposed the chromosome theory of inheritance?
11. What is point mutation? Give an example.
12. Explain the terms phenotype and genotype.
13. Distinguish between heterochromatin and euchromatin. Which of the two is transcriptionally active?
14. Who proved that DNA is genetic material? What is the organism they worked on?
15. Given below is the sequence of coding strand of DNA in a transcription unit 3’-AATGCAGCTATTAGG-5’
Write the sequence of
a) Its complementary strand
b) The mRNA
16. What is the difference between exons and introns?
17. What is meant by capping and tailing?
18. In a typical DNA molecule, the proportion of Thymine is 30% of the N bases. Find out the percentages of other N bases.
19. The proportion of nucleotides in a given nucleic acid is: Adenine 18%, Guanine 30%, Cytosine 42% and Uracil 10%. Name the nucleic acid and mention the number of strands in it.
20. What are molecular scissors? Where are they obtained from?
21. Name any two artificially restructured plasmids.
22. What is EcoRI? How does it function?
23. What are cloning vectors? Give an example.
24. Name the nematode that infects the roots of tobacco plants. Name the strategy adopted to prevent this infestation.
25. Give one example for each of transgenic plants which are suitable for food processing and those with improved nutritional quality.
26. What is meant by ‘hidden hunger’?
27. Name two semi-dwarf varieties of rice developed in India.
28. Give two examples of wheat varieties introduced in India which are high yielding and disease resistant.
29. Give two examples of fungi used in SCP production.
30. What is emasculation? Why and when is it done?
31. Give any two important contributions of Dr. M.S. Swaminathan.
32. Which two species of sugarcane were crossed for better yield?
33. Why does Swiss cheese have big holes? Name the bacteria responsible for it.
34. Name a microbe used for statin production. How do statins lower blood cholesterol level?
35. Give any two microbes that are useful in bio technology.
36. Name any two genetically modified crops.
37. Name any two industrially important enzymes.
38. In which food would you find lactic acid bacteria? Name the bacterium.
39. Name any two fungi which are used in the production of antibiotics.
40. Name the scientists who were credited for showing the role of penicillin as an antibiotic.
Senior Inter Botany Important Questions - New Syllabus - VSAs
Here are Very Short answer type questions (2 marks) for Senior Intermediate students for IPE Exams. The questions are as per the new syllabus of BIEAP. The syllabus and questions are useful for both AP and Telangana students.
1. Define water potential. What is the value of water potential of pure water?
2. Differentiate osmosis from diffusion.
3. What are apoplast and symplast?
4. Define hydroponics.
5. Give two examples of essential elements that act as activators for enzymes.
6. Name the essential mineral elements that play an important role in photolysis of water.
7. Out of the 17 essential elements which elements are called non-mineral essential elements?
8. Name two amino acids in which sulphur is present.
9. When is an essential element said to be deficient?
10. Name two elements whose symptoms of deficiency first appear in younger leaves.
11. Explain the role of pink colour pigment in the root nodule of legume plants. What is it called?
12. Which element is regarded as the 17th essential element? Name a disease caused by its deficiency.
13. Give an example for each of the aerobic and anaerobic nitrogen fixing prokaryotes.
14. Name the essential elements present in nitrogenase enzyme. What type of essential elements are they?
15. Name any two essential elements and the deficiency diseases caused by them.
16. What is meant by feedback inhibition?
17. What are competitive enzyme inhibitors? Mention one example.
18. What are non-competitive enzyme inhibitors? Mention one example.
19. What do the four digits of an enzyme code indicate?
20. Who proposed ‘Lock and Key hypothesis’ and Induced fit hypothesis?
21. Name the processes which take place in the grana and stroma regions of chloroplasts.
22. Which tissue transports photosynthates? What experiments prove this?
23. What is the primary acceptor of CO2 in C3 plants? What is first stable compound formed in a Calvin cycle?
24. What is the primary acceptor of CO2 in C4 plants? What is the first compound formed as a result of primary carboxylation in the C4 pathway?
25. Explain the term ‘Energy currency’. Which substance acts as energy currency in plants and animals?
26. What is the common pathway for aerobic and anaerobic respirations? Where does it take place?
27.Which substance is known as the connecting link between glycolysis and Kreb’s cycle? How many carbons does it have?
28. Name the mobile electron carriers of the respiratory electron transport chain in the inner mitochondrial membrane.
29. What is the final acceptor of electrons in aerobic respiration? From which complex does it receive electrons?
30. What is the disease that formed the basis for the identification of gibberellins in plants? Name the causative fungus of the disease.
31. What is apical dominance? Name the growth hormone that causes it.
32. What is meant by bolting? Which hormone causes bolting?
33. Define respiratory climacteric. Name the PGR associated with it.
34. What is ethophon? Write its role in agricultural practices.
35. Which of the PGRs is called stress hormone and why?
36. Define the terms quiescence and dormancy.
37. Define microbiology.
38. Name the bacterium which is a common inhabitant of human intestine. How is it used in biotechnology?
39. What are pleomorphic bacteria? Give an example.
40. What is sex pilus? What is its function?
More questions are available in the next post.
1. Define water potential. What is the value of water potential of pure water?
2. Differentiate osmosis from diffusion.
3. What are apoplast and symplast?
4. Define hydroponics.
5. Give two examples of essential elements that act as activators for enzymes.
6. Name the essential mineral elements that play an important role in photolysis of water.
7. Out of the 17 essential elements which elements are called non-mineral essential elements?
8. Name two amino acids in which sulphur is present.
9. When is an essential element said to be deficient?
10. Name two elements whose symptoms of deficiency first appear in younger leaves.
11. Explain the role of pink colour pigment in the root nodule of legume plants. What is it called?
12. Which element is regarded as the 17th essential element? Name a disease caused by its deficiency.
13. Give an example for each of the aerobic and anaerobic nitrogen fixing prokaryotes.
14. Name the essential elements present in nitrogenase enzyme. What type of essential elements are they?
15. Name any two essential elements and the deficiency diseases caused by them.
16. What is meant by feedback inhibition?
17. What are competitive enzyme inhibitors? Mention one example.
18. What are non-competitive enzyme inhibitors? Mention one example.
19. What do the four digits of an enzyme code indicate?
20. Who proposed ‘Lock and Key hypothesis’ and Induced fit hypothesis?
21. Name the processes which take place in the grana and stroma regions of chloroplasts.
22. Which tissue transports photosynthates? What experiments prove this?
23. What is the primary acceptor of CO2 in C3 plants? What is first stable compound formed in a Calvin cycle?
24. What is the primary acceptor of CO2 in C4 plants? What is the first compound formed as a result of primary carboxylation in the C4 pathway?
25. Explain the term ‘Energy currency’. Which substance acts as energy currency in plants and animals?
26. What is the common pathway for aerobic and anaerobic respirations? Where does it take place?
27.Which substance is known as the connecting link between glycolysis and Kreb’s cycle? How many carbons does it have?
28. Name the mobile electron carriers of the respiratory electron transport chain in the inner mitochondrial membrane.
29. What is the final acceptor of electrons in aerobic respiration? From which complex does it receive electrons?
30. What is the disease that formed the basis for the identification of gibberellins in plants? Name the causative fungus of the disease.
31. What is apical dominance? Name the growth hormone that causes it.
32. What is meant by bolting? Which hormone causes bolting?
33. Define respiratory climacteric. Name the PGR associated with it.
34. What is ethophon? Write its role in agricultural practices.
35. Which of the PGRs is called stress hormone and why?
36. Define the terms quiescence and dormancy.
37. Define microbiology.
38. Name the bacterium which is a common inhabitant of human intestine. How is it used in biotechnology?
39. What are pleomorphic bacteria? Give an example.
40. What is sex pilus? What is its function?
More questions are available in the next post.
IPE Senior Intermediate Commerce Model Paper - Part 2
Senior Inter Model Question Paper
Part-II (50 Marks)
Section - D
Answer the following question. 1 × 20 = 20
18. Pinky and Rinky are partners sharing profit & loss in the ratio of 3 : 2. Their Balance Sheet as at 31-12-2012 was as under.
Liabilities Amt. (Rs.)
Sundry Creditors 50,000
Bills Payable 1,60,000
General reserve 90,000
Capitals:
Pinky 1,50,000
Rinky 75,000
Total: 5,25,000
Assets Amt. (Rs.)
Cash 5,000
Sundry Debtors 1,95,000
Stock 1,25,000
Furnitures 50,000
Buildings 1,50,000
Total: 5,25,000
They decided to admit Tinku into partnership by giving him 1/4th share in the future profit on the following conditions.
1. Tinku is to bring Rs.50,000 as Capital and Rs.50,000 as goodwill in cash.
2. The amount of goodwill is withdrawn from the business by old partners.
3. Buildings are to be appreciated by 10%.
4. Furniture and Stock are to be depreciated by 5%.
5. Provide Rs.5250 for provision for doubtful debts. Prepare necessary ledger accounts and show the new balance sheet.
Section - E
Answer any ONE of the following. 1 × 10 = 10
19. Murthy of Nizamabad consigned 100 packets of turmeric (wholesale total cost price is Rs.7500) at a proforma invoice price of 25% profit on sale to his agent Das of Warangal. Murthy paid Rs. 600 as expenses. Das has took delivery of goods and paid Rs.1200 for octroi and other duties and remitted Rs. 4000 as advance. He sold 85 cases for Rs.10,500. Das is entitled to 5% commission on gross sales and 10% of
the sales price in excess of invoice price. Show consignment account and Das's account in the books of Murthy. OR
20. Following is the Receipts & Payments account of Vijayawada Sports Club, prepare income & expenditure account from as on 31-3-2008.
Receipts Amt. (Rs.):
To Balance 13,600
(1-4-2007)
'' Subsriptions
2006-07 1,200
2007-08 16,500 } 2008-09 1,300 19,000
'' Legacies 3,500
'' Interest on deposits 1,100
'' Entrnace Fee 1,500
'' Life Membership fee 2,000
'' Sale of 500
old newspapers
Total: 41,200
Payments Amt. (Rs.):
By Salaries 3,400
'' Printing & 2,000
Stationary
'' Telephone 1,000
Charges
'' Newspapers 900
'' Books 6000
'' Office expenses 2,500
'' Fixed deposits 20,000
'' Balance c/d 5,400
(31-3-2008)
Total: 41,200
Additional information:
1) Outstanding salaries: Rs.600
2) Outstanding telephone bill: Rs.500
3) Interest receivable on fixed deposits: Rs.900
4) Subscriptions receivable for the year 2007-08: Rs.1500
5) Capitalise half of entrance fee.
6) Balances on first April 2008: Furniture Rs.3000, Outstanding Subscription Rs.1500, Books Rs.4000.
7) Provide Depreciation on furniture: 10% and on Books 15%
Section - F
Answer any TWO of the following questions. 2 × 5 = 10
21. Distinguish between consignment and sale?
22. M draws a three months bill for Rs.6000 upon N. After obtaining acceptance from N, the bill was endorsed to O in settlement of his debt. O discounted the bill at 12% p.a. The bill is dishonoured on the due date. Pass necessary journal entries in the books of M, N and O.
23. Amarish purchased machinery for Rs.20,000 on January 1, 2005. On 1st July 2006, another machine was purchased for Rs.30,000. The machinery is to be depreciated at 20% p.a. on the Diminishing Balance Method. Show the machinery account for the first 3 years.
24. Mr. Ramesh commenced business on 1st April, 2010 with a capital of Rs.35,000. On 31st March 2011, his position was as follows:
Furniture 2,000
Cash in hand 10,000
Machinery 18,000
Creditors 5,000
Debtors 20,000
Bills payable 3,000
During the year he withdrew Rs.12,000 for his personal use and introduced additional capital Rs.6000. Find out profit or loss made by Mr. Ramesh during the year.
Section - G
Answer any FIVE of the following questions. 5 × 2 = 10
25. Define the term bill of exchange?
26. Write any two causes of depreciation?
27. What are direct expenses?
28. Explain about legacy?
29. Find out profit or loss for the following. Capital at the beginning of the year Rs.15,000, drawings Rs.4,000, capital at the end of the year Rs.16,000.
30. What is scarifying ratio?
31. Write the entry for an increase in the value of an asset in revaluation of assets and liabilities.
32. P, Q are partners sharing profit and losses in 3 : 2 ratio. They admitted R by giving 1/5 th share. Find new profit sharing ratio.
Part-II (50 Marks)
Section - D
Answer the following question. 1 × 20 = 20
18. Pinky and Rinky are partners sharing profit & loss in the ratio of 3 : 2. Their Balance Sheet as at 31-12-2012 was as under.
Liabilities Amt. (Rs.)
Sundry Creditors 50,000
Bills Payable 1,60,000
General reserve 90,000
Capitals:
Pinky 1,50,000
Rinky 75,000
Total: 5,25,000
Assets Amt. (Rs.)
Cash 5,000
Sundry Debtors 1,95,000
Stock 1,25,000
Furnitures 50,000
Buildings 1,50,000
Total: 5,25,000
They decided to admit Tinku into partnership by giving him 1/4th share in the future profit on the following conditions.
1. Tinku is to bring Rs.50,000 as Capital and Rs.50,000 as goodwill in cash.
2. The amount of goodwill is withdrawn from the business by old partners.
3. Buildings are to be appreciated by 10%.
4. Furniture and Stock are to be depreciated by 5%.
5. Provide Rs.5250 for provision for doubtful debts. Prepare necessary ledger accounts and show the new balance sheet.
Section - E
Answer any ONE of the following. 1 × 10 = 10
19. Murthy of Nizamabad consigned 100 packets of turmeric (wholesale total cost price is Rs.7500) at a proforma invoice price of 25% profit on sale to his agent Das of Warangal. Murthy paid Rs. 600 as expenses. Das has took delivery of goods and paid Rs.1200 for octroi and other duties and remitted Rs. 4000 as advance. He sold 85 cases for Rs.10,500. Das is entitled to 5% commission on gross sales and 10% of
the sales price in excess of invoice price. Show consignment account and Das's account in the books of Murthy. OR
20. Following is the Receipts & Payments account of Vijayawada Sports Club, prepare income & expenditure account from as on 31-3-2008.
Receipts Amt. (Rs.):
To Balance 13,600
(1-4-2007)
'' Subsriptions
2006-07 1,200
2007-08 16,500 } 2008-09 1,300 19,000
'' Legacies 3,500
'' Interest on deposits 1,100
'' Entrnace Fee 1,500
'' Life Membership fee 2,000
'' Sale of 500
old newspapers
Total: 41,200
Payments Amt. (Rs.):
By Salaries 3,400
'' Printing & 2,000
Stationary
'' Telephone 1,000
Charges
'' Newspapers 900
'' Books 6000
'' Office expenses 2,500
'' Fixed deposits 20,000
'' Balance c/d 5,400
(31-3-2008)
Total: 41,200
Additional information:
1) Outstanding salaries: Rs.600
2) Outstanding telephone bill: Rs.500
3) Interest receivable on fixed deposits: Rs.900
4) Subscriptions receivable for the year 2007-08: Rs.1500
5) Capitalise half of entrance fee.
6) Balances on first April 2008: Furniture Rs.3000, Outstanding Subscription Rs.1500, Books Rs.4000.
7) Provide Depreciation on furniture: 10% and on Books 15%
Section - F
Answer any TWO of the following questions. 2 × 5 = 10
21. Distinguish between consignment and sale?
22. M draws a three months bill for Rs.6000 upon N. After obtaining acceptance from N, the bill was endorsed to O in settlement of his debt. O discounted the bill at 12% p.a. The bill is dishonoured on the due date. Pass necessary journal entries in the books of M, N and O.
23. Amarish purchased machinery for Rs.20,000 on January 1, 2005. On 1st July 2006, another machine was purchased for Rs.30,000. The machinery is to be depreciated at 20% p.a. on the Diminishing Balance Method. Show the machinery account for the first 3 years.
24. Mr. Ramesh commenced business on 1st April, 2010 with a capital of Rs.35,000. On 31st March 2011, his position was as follows:
Furniture 2,000
Cash in hand 10,000
Machinery 18,000
Creditors 5,000
Debtors 20,000
Bills payable 3,000
During the year he withdrew Rs.12,000 for his personal use and introduced additional capital Rs.6000. Find out profit or loss made by Mr. Ramesh during the year.
Section - G
Answer any FIVE of the following questions. 5 × 2 = 10
25. Define the term bill of exchange?
26. Write any two causes of depreciation?
27. What are direct expenses?
28. Explain about legacy?
29. Find out profit or loss for the following. Capital at the beginning of the year Rs.15,000, drawings Rs.4,000, capital at the end of the year Rs.16,000.
30. What is scarifying ratio?
31. Write the entry for an increase in the value of an asset in revaluation of assets and liabilities.
32. P, Q are partners sharing profit and losses in 3 : 2 ratio. They admitted R by giving 1/5 th share. Find new profit sharing ratio.
Subscribe to:
Posts (Atom)