Nizams Institute of Medical Sciences (NIMS) has issued notification
inviting applications from eligible candidates of Telangana and Andhra
Pradesh States for admission into MD/ MS post graduate medical
specialty courses for the academic year 2016-17.
MD (Anaesthesiology): 7 Seats
MD (Bio-Chemistry): 4 Seats
MD (General Medicine): 4 Seats
MD (Hospital Administration): 3 Seats
MS (Orthopaedics): 6 Seats
MD (Pathology): 5 Seats
MD (Radiotherapy): 3 Seats
Course Duration: 3 years.
Qualification: MBBS.
Method of Selection: Selection of the candidates will be made based on
the performance of the candidates at the Common Entrance Test
NIMSET-BS - 2016.
Application form needs to be filled and submitted online. Last date
for submission of application is 18 January 2016. Date of entrance
examination is 6 March 2016.
Gitam Admission Test GAT 2016 for Engineering and Pharmacy Admissions
Computer Based Online Test will be conducted by GITAM University
Visakhapatnam for admission to Engineering, Architecture and Pharmacy
Programs for the academic year 2016 - 17 for its Bengaluru, Hyderabad
and Visakhapatnam Campuses.
Programmes offered:
4 Year B.Tech. Programs
6 Year Dual Degree Programs (B.Tech. + M.Tech.)
5 Year Bachelor of Architecture
4 Year B.Pharmacy
2 Year M.Tech.
2 Year M.Pharmacy
Eligibility: Candidates should have passed in Intermediate or 10+2
examination with a minimum of 60 percent aggregate marks (50 percent
aggregate marks for B.Arch./ B.Pharm) in Maths, Physics and Chemistry.
Candidates with Maths/ Biology, Physics and Chemistry subjects are
eligible for B.Tech. Biotechnology and B.Pharmacy. Candidates seeking
admission to B.Arch. program should qualify in NATA/ JEE (Main).
Candidates can apply online at GITAM University website.
Last date for the receipt of applications: 2 April 2016.
Online admission Test commences from: 19 April 2016 to 8 May 2016.
Visakhapatnam for admission to Engineering, Architecture and Pharmacy
Programs for the academic year 2016 - 17 for its Bengaluru, Hyderabad
and Visakhapatnam Campuses.
Programmes offered:
4 Year B.Tech. Programs
6 Year Dual Degree Programs (B.Tech. + M.Tech.)
5 Year Bachelor of Architecture
4 Year B.Pharmacy
2 Year M.Tech.
2 Year M.Pharmacy
Eligibility: Candidates should have passed in Intermediate or 10+2
examination with a minimum of 60 percent aggregate marks (50 percent
aggregate marks for B.Arch./ B.Pharm) in Maths, Physics and Chemistry.
Candidates with Maths/ Biology, Physics and Chemistry subjects are
eligible for B.Tech. Biotechnology and B.Pharmacy. Candidates seeking
admission to B.Arch. program should qualify in NATA/ JEE (Main).
Candidates can apply online at GITAM University website.
Last date for the receipt of applications: 2 April 2016.
Online admission Test commences from: 19 April 2016 to 8 May 2016.
NTR University PGMET 2016 and MDSET 2016 Notifications
NTR University of Health Sciences, Vijayawada has issued notification
inviting application forms through online for admission into PG
medical courses for the academic year 2016-17.
Computer Based (Online) Entrance Test for admission into Post Graduate
Medical (MD/ MS/ Diploma) and MDS Degree Courses for the academic year
2016-17 for the seats under Competent Authority quota in the Colleges
affiliated to NTR University of Health Sciences, AP will be conducted
as per the dates given below.
Last date for the submission of applications: 20 January 2016.
Address: The Convener, Post Graduate Admissions Committee, Dr. NTR
University of Health Sciences, A.P., Vijayawada.
Date and Time of Computer based (Online) Entrance Test:
PG Medical Courses (MD/ MS/ Diploma): 28 February 2016.
MDS Degree Courses: 6 March 2016.
inviting application forms through online for admission into PG
medical courses for the academic year 2016-17.
Computer Based (Online) Entrance Test for admission into Post Graduate
Medical (MD/ MS/ Diploma) and MDS Degree Courses for the academic year
2016-17 for the seats under Competent Authority quota in the Colleges
affiliated to NTR University of Health Sciences, AP will be conducted
as per the dates given below.
Last date for the submission of applications: 20 January 2016.
Address: The Convener, Post Graduate Admissions Committee, Dr. NTR
University of Health Sciences, A.P., Vijayawada.
Date and Time of Computer based (Online) Entrance Test:
PG Medical Courses (MD/ MS/ Diploma): 28 February 2016.
MDS Degree Courses: 6 March 2016.
AP Polycet 2016 on 27th April - Results on 9th May 2016
The Government of Andhra Pradesh has announced schedule for AP Polycet - 2016 for admission into polytechnic courses for the academic year 2016-17. The department of technical education of Government of AP is making arrangements to conduct the AP Polycet - 2016.
The AP - POLYCET 2016 will be held on 27th April 2016. The results of the entrance examination will be released on 9th May 2016.
Admission into various streams of polytechnic course in Government and private polytechnic colleges will be based on the merit in AP Polycet and reservations.
There will be online counseling for the AP Polycet 2016 qualified candidates. The details with notification will be released in February / March 2016 by the department of technical education, Government of AP.
The AP - POLYCET 2016 will be held on 27th April 2016. The results of the entrance examination will be released on 9th May 2016.
Admission into various streams of polytechnic course in Government and private polytechnic colleges will be based on the merit in AP Polycet and reservations.
There will be online counseling for the AP Polycet 2016 qualified candidates. The details with notification will be released in February / March 2016 by the department of technical education, Government of AP.
BRAOU Entrance Test for B.Ed and B.Ed Special Education Admissions - 2016
Dr BR Ambedkar Open University (BRAOU) has issued recruitment notification inviting applications for admission into B.Ed and B.Ed (Special Education) programmes through Entrance Test for the academic year 2016-17.
B.Ed: Duration is 2 years and course is offered in Telugu medium.
Eligibility: Candidates should have passed any degree with at least 50 percent marks. Degree can be in B.A./ B.Sc./ B.Com./ B.C.A./ B.Sc. (Home Science)/ BBM and/ or the Masters Degree in Commerce/ Social Sciences/ Humanities/ Sciences.
B.Ed. (Special Education): Duration of the course is 2 1/2 years. Medium is English and Telugu.
Eligibility: Candidates need at least 50 percent marks either in the Bachelors Degree and/ or in the Masters Degree in Sciences/ Social Sciences/ Humanities/ Commerce.
Last date for registrations: 30 January 2016.
Date of Entrance Test: 14 February 2016.
B.Ed: Duration is 2 years and course is offered in Telugu medium.
Eligibility: Candidates should have passed any degree with at least 50 percent marks. Degree can be in B.A./ B.Sc./ B.Com./ B.C.A./ B.Sc. (Home Science)/ BBM and/ or the Masters Degree in Commerce/ Social Sciences/ Humanities/ Sciences.
B.Ed. (Special Education): Duration of the course is 2 1/2 years. Medium is English and Telugu.
Eligibility: Candidates need at least 50 percent marks either in the Bachelors Degree and/ or in the Masters Degree in Sciences/ Social Sciences/ Humanities/ Commerce.
Last date for registrations: 30 January 2016.
Date of Entrance Test: 14 February 2016.
University of Hyderabad Ph.D Admissions 2016-17
University of Hyderabad, a Central University at Hyderabad has issued Ph.D admission notification for the academic year 2016-17. The course duration is 4 years. Following are details of disciplines, selection and application process:
Disciplines: Applied Mathematics, Statistics, Physics, Chemistry, Biochemistry, Plant Science, Animal Sciences, Biotechnology, Philosophy, Applied Linguistics, Transnational Studies, Science and Technology and Society Studies, Medical Science, Earth and Space Science, Gender Studies.
Candidates should have Masters degree in concerned discipline / subject. Selection of the candidates will be based on the performance in written exam and personal interviews.
Application forms cane be downloaded from the website www.uohyd.ac.in. Last date for the submission of filled in applications is 15 January 2016. Address: The Joint Registrar (Acad & Exam), University of Hyderabad, Prof CR Rao Road, Gachibowli, Hyderabad- 500 046.
Disciplines: Applied Mathematics, Statistics, Physics, Chemistry, Biochemistry, Plant Science, Animal Sciences, Biotechnology, Philosophy, Applied Linguistics, Transnational Studies, Science and Technology and Society Studies, Medical Science, Earth and Space Science, Gender Studies.
Candidates should have Masters degree in concerned discipline / subject. Selection of the candidates will be based on the performance in written exam and personal interviews.
Application forms cane be downloaded from the website www.uohyd.ac.in. Last date for the submission of filled in applications is 15 January 2016. Address: The Joint Registrar (Acad & Exam), University of Hyderabad, Prof CR Rao Road, Gachibowli, Hyderabad- 500 046.
International School Shaikpet - Hyderabad Admissions 2016-17
International School, a division of International Educational Society has issued notification for admission into Nursery to Class IV for the academic year 2016-17. The academic year starts from 2nd March 2016.
The International School follows ICSE Curriculum. The school is founded by Dr Kakarla Subba Rao. Application forms and prospectus are available at School premises between 9 AM 0 3 PM on all working days.
Address of the school: International School, 8-1-300/1, Shaikpet (Near Tolichowki), Hyderabad - 500008. Phone: 2356 1086 / 2356 0983.
Email: international_school@rediffmail.com
Website: www.internationalschooliea.com
The International School follows ICSE Curriculum. The school is founded by Dr Kakarla Subba Rao. Application forms and prospectus are available at School premises between 9 AM 0 3 PM on all working days.
Address of the school: International School, 8-1-300/1, Shaikpet (Near Tolichowki), Hyderabad - 500008. Phone: 2356 1086 / 2356 0983.
Email: international_school@rediffmail.com
Website: www.internationalschooliea.com
Andhra Pradesh Model Schools 6th Class Admissions 2106-17
Andhra Pradesh Model Schools have announced notification for admission into 6th class for the academic year 2016-17. Applications are invited in the prescribed format through online only.
Students should have studied in recognised schools during 2014-15 and 2015-16. They should have been promoted from 5th class to 6th class from concerned school for the year 2016-17. There are 155 model schools in AP.
Entrance examination will be conducted on 10th April 2016. Online applications can be submitted till 30th January 2016. Fee can be paid through AP online or mee seva centers.
Entrance examination will be in objective multiple choice type. Admissions will be through merit in entrance examination and rule of reservations.
Students should have studied in recognised schools during 2014-15 and 2015-16. They should have been promoted from 5th class to 6th class from concerned school for the year 2016-17. There are 155 model schools in AP.
Entrance examination will be conducted on 10th April 2016. Online applications can be submitted till 30th January 2016. Fee can be paid through AP online or mee seva centers.
Entrance examination will be in objective multiple choice type. Admissions will be through merit in entrance examination and rule of reservations.
New Central Universities and Institutions in Andhra Pradesh - 2016
The Central Government is in the process of establishing various central universities / institutes of national importance in the state of Andhra Pradesh. The Government of AP has to allot lands and its share of funds for these institutions to set up campuses.
1) IIT Tirupati
2) IISER Tirupati
3) IIM Visakhapatnam
4) NIT Tadepalligudem
5) IIIT Kurnool
6) Tribal University
7) Central University
8) Agricultural University
9) Petroleum University
10) Disaster Management University
11) AIIMS Mangalagiri
Most of these universities / institutions will come up with the financial assistance by Central Government. Government of AP has to allot sufficient land and other resources as its part.
1) IIT Tirupati
2) IISER Tirupati
3) IIM Visakhapatnam
4) NIT Tadepalligudem
5) IIIT Kurnool
6) Tribal University
7) Central University
8) Agricultural University
9) Petroleum University
10) Disaster Management University
11) AIIMS Mangalagiri
Most of these universities / institutions will come up with the financial assistance by Central Government. Government of AP has to allot sufficient land and other resources as its part.
New Universities in Andhra Pradesh in 2016 - XLRI, Amritha, GMR, SRM, SAARC Universities
The Government of Andhra Pradesh has approved several universities in the private management category. The government has confirmed the establishment of following private universities / educational institutions in the country.
1) Fisheries Universities
2) XLRI
3) Esha Leadership Academy
4) Law Academy
5) Amritha Viswavidyalayam
6) KRIDA (Sports department)
7) Logistics University
8) Tourism and Hospitality University (Tourism department)
9) Energy Institute
10) Telugu University (Education department)
11) TERI - Energy Resources - AP
12) Urdu University
13) YVR (Yalamanchili Infra Limited)
14) Web City (Virtual Academy - Higher Education Department)
15) Open University
16) GMR University
17) Natural History Park
18) Museum (Planning Department)
19) SRM University
20) Softbank
21) IIM (A) - SAARC University
22) Esha Yoga and Meditation Center
23) CII Knowledge Economy Zone
The Government of Andhra Pradesh has to allot the lands for these universities / institutions to set up campuses in various locations of the state.
1) Fisheries Universities
2) XLRI
3) Esha Leadership Academy
4) Law Academy
5) Amritha Viswavidyalayam
6) KRIDA (Sports department)
7) Logistics University
8) Tourism and Hospitality University (Tourism department)
9) Energy Institute
10) Telugu University (Education department)
11) TERI - Energy Resources - AP
12) Urdu University
13) YVR (Yalamanchili Infra Limited)
14) Web City (Virtual Academy - Higher Education Department)
15) Open University
16) GMR University
17) Natural History Park
18) Museum (Planning Department)
19) SRM University
20) Softbank
21) IIM (A) - SAARC University
22) Esha Yoga and Meditation Center
23) CII Knowledge Economy Zone
The Government of Andhra Pradesh has to allot the lands for these universities / institutions to set up campuses in various locations of the state.
NTR University of Health Sciences MD, MS, Diploma Admissions 2016-17
Dr NTR University of Health Sciences (NTRUHS), Vijaywada - Andhra Pradesh has announced notification for computer based (online) entrance test for admission into Post Graduate Medical Degree / Diploma Courses and MDS Courses for the academic year 2016-17.
Computer based online entrance test for admission into MD / MS / Diploma courses will be held on 28th February 2016 and for MDS course will be held on 6th March 2016 at the centers to be notified by NTR University.
Candidates have to submit applications online and send print outs of the applications offline along with enclosures. Online applications and instructions will be available on the website www.ntruhs.org from 28th December 2015.
Computer based online entrance test for admission into MD / MS / Diploma courses will be held on 28th February 2016 and for MDS course will be held on 6th March 2016 at the centers to be notified by NTR University.
Candidates have to submit applications online and send print outs of the applications offline along with enclosures. Online applications and instructions will be available on the website www.ntruhs.org from 28th December 2015.
Junior Inter Physics Important Questions for 2 and 4 Marks
Junior Inter Physics - System of Particles And Rotational Motion
Q: Is it necessary that mass should be present at the centre of mass of any system? (2 Marks)
A: It is not necessary that mass should be present at the centre of mass of any system. Ex: Circular ring.
Q: Why are spokes provided in a bicycle wheel? (2 Marks)
A: To ensure uniform speed of cycle wheel, it should possess large moment of inertia. To increase moment of inertia, the wheel is provided with spokes.
Q: By spinning eggs on a table top, how will you distinguish a hard boiled egg from a raw egg? (2 Marks)
A: A raw egg has some fluid in it and hard boiled egg is solid from inside. Both eggs are spinning on a table top, the fluid is thrown outwards. Then moment of inertia of raw egg is greater than boiled egg. i.e., Ir > Ib, ωr < ωb. So, raw egg will come to rest soon
Q: Why do we prefer a spanner of long arm as compared to the spanner of shorter arm? (2 Marks)
A: From the definition of torque (τ) = Force × Perpendicular distance.
For long arm spanner, perpendicular distance is large. Thus it provides more torque.
4 Marks Questions:
Q: Explain about the centre of mass of earthmoon system and its rotation around the sun.
A: The earth-moon rotates about common centre of mass. The mass of earth is about 81 times that of moon.
The centre of mass of earth-moon system locate relatively very nearer to the centre of the earth. The interaction between earth - moon does not affect the motion of centre of mass of earth-moon system. The gravitational attraction of the sun is only external force that acts on earth-moon system, centre of mass of the earth-moon system moves in
an elliptical path around the sun.
Q: Distinguish between centre of mass and centre of gravity
Answer:
Centre of mass:
1. Point at which entire mass of the body is supposed to be concentrated.
2. It may or may not lies inside the body.
3. It describes the nature of motion of the body as a whole.
4. It is independent of acceleration due to gravity.
Centre of gravity:
1. The point through which the weight of the body act.
2. It always lies inside the body.
3. It is defined to know the stability of the body.
4. It depends on acceleration due to gravity (g).
Q: Is it necessary that mass should be present at the centre of mass of any system? (2 Marks)
A: It is not necessary that mass should be present at the centre of mass of any system. Ex: Circular ring.
Q: Why are spokes provided in a bicycle wheel? (2 Marks)
A: To ensure uniform speed of cycle wheel, it should possess large moment of inertia. To increase moment of inertia, the wheel is provided with spokes.
Q: By spinning eggs on a table top, how will you distinguish a hard boiled egg from a raw egg? (2 Marks)
A: A raw egg has some fluid in it and hard boiled egg is solid from inside. Both eggs are spinning on a table top, the fluid is thrown outwards. Then moment of inertia of raw egg is greater than boiled egg. i.e., Ir > Ib, ωr < ωb. So, raw egg will come to rest soon
Q: Why do we prefer a spanner of long arm as compared to the spanner of shorter arm? (2 Marks)
A: From the definition of torque (τ) = Force × Perpendicular distance.
For long arm spanner, perpendicular distance is large. Thus it provides more torque.
4 Marks Questions:
Q: Explain about the centre of mass of earthmoon system and its rotation around the sun.
A: The earth-moon rotates about common centre of mass. The mass of earth is about 81 times that of moon.
The centre of mass of earth-moon system locate relatively very nearer to the centre of the earth. The interaction between earth - moon does not affect the motion of centre of mass of earth-moon system. The gravitational attraction of the sun is only external force that acts on earth-moon system, centre of mass of the earth-moon system moves in
an elliptical path around the sun.
Q: Distinguish between centre of mass and centre of gravity
Answer:
Centre of mass:
1. Point at which entire mass of the body is supposed to be concentrated.
2. It may or may not lies inside the body.
3. It describes the nature of motion of the body as a whole.
4. It is independent of acceleration due to gravity.
Centre of gravity:
1. The point through which the weight of the body act.
2. It always lies inside the body.
3. It is defined to know the stability of the body.
4. It depends on acceleration due to gravity (g).
NIMS Hyderabad MD and MS Admissions 2016-17
Nizams Institute of Medical Sciences (NIMS), Panjagutta, Hyderabad has issued notification for admission into post graduate medical - MD / MS courses for the academic year 2016-17. Candidates from Telangana and Andhra Pradesh can apply.
Details of specialisations and seats:
1) MD Anaesthesiology: 7 seats
2) MD Biochemistry: 4 seats
3) MD General Medicine: 4 seats
4) MD Hospital Administration: 3 seats
5) MD Orthopaedics: 6 seats
6) MD Pathology: 5 seats
7) MD Radiotherapy: 3 seats
Duration of the course is 3 years. Candidates should have passed in MBBS.
Application forms and other details can be downloaded from the NIMS website at www.nims.edu.in after 28th December 2015. The selection will be based on the entrance test to be conducted by NIMS on 6th March 2016.
Details of specialisations and seats:
1) MD Anaesthesiology: 7 seats
2) MD Biochemistry: 4 seats
3) MD General Medicine: 4 seats
4) MD Hospital Administration: 3 seats
5) MD Orthopaedics: 6 seats
6) MD Pathology: 5 seats
7) MD Radiotherapy: 3 seats
Duration of the course is 3 years. Candidates should have passed in MBBS.
Application forms and other details can be downloaded from the NIMS website at www.nims.edu.in after 28th December 2015. The selection will be based on the entrance test to be conducted by NIMS on 6th March 2016.
NTR University M.Sc Nursing Admissions 2015-16 for Sri Padmavathamma College
Dr NTR University of Health Sciences, Vijayawada - Andhra Pradesh has announced admission notification for M.Sc Nursing course in Sri Padmavathamma Government College of Nursing, Tirupati for the academic year 2015-16.
1st and final counseling for provisional admission into M.Sc Nursing in Sri Padmavathamma Government College of Nursing, Tirupati will be held on 30th December 2015 at Dr NTR University of Health Sciences, Vijayawada.
All the eligible women candidates those qualified in Entrance Examination held on 16 August 2015 can attend the counselling. For more details, see the website ntruhs.ap.nic.in .
1st and final counseling for provisional admission into M.Sc Nursing in Sri Padmavathamma Government College of Nursing, Tirupati will be held on 30th December 2015 at Dr NTR University of Health Sciences, Vijayawada.
All the eligible women candidates those qualified in Entrance Examination held on 16 August 2015 can attend the counselling. For more details, see the website ntruhs.ap.nic.in .
Osmania University M Tech Part Time PG Programmes - 2015
Osmania University, Hyderabad (OU) has announced notification for admission into Part - Time (6- Semester) Post Graduate courses under self finance leading to M.Tech. Chemical Engineering (Plant Design)/ Food Technology (Food Processing Technology)/ Textile Technology (Apparel Technology) for the academic year 2015-2016.
Number of seats: 15 + 2 (for Sponsored Candidates)
Selection: Selection of the candidates will be through Entrance Test at UG Level conducted by UCT, OU.
Eligibility requirements:
M.Tech Chemical Engineering (Plant Design): Candidates should have first class in B.E/ B.Tech Chemical Engineering.
M.Tech Food Technology (Food Processing Technology): Candidates need first class in B.Tech (Food Processing and Preservation Technology/ Food Processing Technology/ Food Technology/ Food Science and Technology/ Food Science/ Food Process Engineering/ Dairy Technology/ Dairy Science/ Oils and Fat Technology/ Fermentation Technology/ Food
Engineering) and M. Sc. (Food Technology/ Food Science and Technology/ Dairy Technology/ Food Technology and Management/ Marine Technology)
M.Tech Textile Technology (Apparel Technology): Need first class B.Tech.(Textile Technology/ Textile Chemistry/ Textile Engineering/ Fibre Science and Technology/ Apparel Technology/ Fashion Technology).
Experience: All the candidates should have two years experience at the time of Admission in Industry/ Academics/ R& D in Chemical Engineering / Food/ Textile Fields.
Filled in applications should reach the address: Office of the Principal, University College of Technology, Osmania University, Hyderabad (T.S).
Last date for submission of applications: 5 January 2016.
Entrance date and counseling date: 18 January 2016.
Number of seats: 15 + 2 (for Sponsored Candidates)
Selection: Selection of the candidates will be through Entrance Test at UG Level conducted by UCT, OU.
Eligibility requirements:
M.Tech Chemical Engineering (Plant Design): Candidates should have first class in B.E/ B.Tech Chemical Engineering.
M.Tech Food Technology (Food Processing Technology): Candidates need first class in B.Tech (Food Processing and Preservation Technology/ Food Processing Technology/ Food Technology/ Food Science and Technology/ Food Science/ Food Process Engineering/ Dairy Technology/ Dairy Science/ Oils and Fat Technology/ Fermentation Technology/ Food
Engineering) and M. Sc. (Food Technology/ Food Science and Technology/ Dairy Technology/ Food Technology and Management/ Marine Technology)
M.Tech Textile Technology (Apparel Technology): Need first class B.Tech.(Textile Technology/ Textile Chemistry/ Textile Engineering/ Fibre Science and Technology/ Apparel Technology/ Fashion Technology).
Experience: All the candidates should have two years experience at the time of Admission in Industry/ Academics/ R& D in Chemical Engineering / Food/ Textile Fields.
Filled in applications should reach the address: Office of the Principal, University College of Technology, Osmania University, Hyderabad (T.S).
Last date for submission of applications: 5 January 2016.
Entrance date and counseling date: 18 January 2016.
AP PGECET 2016 on 26th May by JNTU Kakinada of Andhra Pradesh
The AP PGECET - 2016 examination will be conducted on 26th May 2016. The entrance examination will be conducted by JNTU Kakinada. The online application process will be conducted through the website of AP PGECET at www.apschepgecet.net . Admission into post graduate programmes in Engineering, Technology, Pharmacy, D.Pharm., Architecture and Planning courses in all University and affiliated colleges in Andhra Pradesh will be conducted through ranks in AP PGECET 2016 only for the academic year 2016-17.
Entrance Test Name: AP PGECET- 2016
Available Courses: M.E./ M.Tech./M.Pharm./ M.Arch./ M.Plannin./ Pharm.D.
Last date for receipt of applications: April 2016
Eligibility for AP PGECET 2016: Candidates should have passed in B.E/B.Tech./B.Pharm./ AMIE/ B.Arch./ B.Planning in the relevant discipline. Candidates who have qualified in GATE/GPAT exams need not appear for entrance test. There will be separate admission notification for these candidates.
Application Procedure: Interested candidates can apply online only after the announcement of AP PGECET notification in 2016.
Important Dates:
Start of online applications for AP PGECET 2016: March / April 2016
Last date for the online applications: April 2016
Date of AP PGECET - 2016: 26th May 2016.
Entrance Test Name: AP PGECET- 2016
Available Courses: M.E./ M.Tech./M.Pharm./ M.Arch./ M.Plannin./ Pharm.D.
Last date for receipt of applications: April 2016
Eligibility for AP PGECET 2016: Candidates should have passed in B.E/B.Tech./B.Pharm./ AMIE/ B.Arch./ B.Planning in the relevant discipline. Candidates who have qualified in GATE/GPAT exams need not appear for entrance test. There will be separate admission notification for these candidates.
Application Procedure: Interested candidates can apply online only after the announcement of AP PGECET notification in 2016.
Important Dates:
Start of online applications for AP PGECET 2016: March / April 2016
Last date for the online applications: April 2016
Date of AP PGECET - 2016: 26th May 2016.
AP EAMCET on 5th May 2016 - Notification in March 2016
The Government of Andhra Pradesh has released the AP EAMCET 2016 dates. The examination will be held on 5th May 2016 across the state of Andhra Pradesh. The Engineering, Agricultural and Medical Common Entrance Test-2016 (AP EAMCET-2016) of Andhra Pradesh will be conducted by Jawaharlal Nehru Technological University, Kakinada (JNTUK). The EAMCET entrance exam is for entry into following engineering and pharma professional courses for the academic year 2016-17.
1. Engineering, Bio-Technology, B.Tech. (Dairy Technology), B.Tech. (Agricultural Engineering), B.Pharmacy, B.Tech. (Food Science and Technology/ B.Sc. (CABM - Commercial Agriculture and Business Management)
2. B.Sc. (Agriculture)/ B.Sc. (Horticulture)/ B.V.Sc and A.H (Veterinary Science and Animal Husbandry)/ B.F.Sc (Food Science).
Other Courses: 3. MBBS/ BDS, 4. BAMS/ BHMS/ BNYS, 5. Pharm-D
Online applications: Candidates may submit their applications through online mode only from www.apeamcet.org .
Date of AP EAMCET: 5 May 2016.
Commencement of online application submission: March 2016.
Last date for submission without late fee: April 2016.
Download of AP EAMCET 2016 Hall Tickets from website: April - May 2016
Website: www.apeamcet.org
1. Engineering, Bio-Technology, B.Tech. (Dairy Technology), B.Tech. (Agricultural Engineering), B.Pharmacy, B.Tech. (Food Science and Technology/ B.Sc. (CABM - Commercial Agriculture and Business Management)
2. B.Sc. (Agriculture)/ B.Sc. (Horticulture)/ B.V.Sc and A.H (Veterinary Science and Animal Husbandry)/ B.F.Sc (Food Science).
Other Courses: 3. MBBS/ BDS, 4. BAMS/ BHMS/ BNYS, 5. Pharm-D
Online applications: Candidates may submit their applications through online mode only from www.apeamcet.org .
Date of AP EAMCET: 5 May 2016.
Commencement of online application submission: March 2016.
Last date for submission without late fee: April 2016.
Download of AP EAMCET 2016 Hall Tickets from website: April - May 2016
Website: www.apeamcet.org
CETs Dates in Andhra Pradesh 2016 - EAMCET, ICET, EDCET, PGECET 2016 Dates Released
The Government of Andhra Pradesh has released examination dates for various CETs (Common Entrance Tests) to be conducted in 2016 for admission into various graduate and post graduate courses for the academic year 2016-17. Following are dates of important CETs in Andhra Pradesh.
1) AP EAMCET 2016: 5th May 2016 (By JNTU Kakinada)
2) AP ECET 2016: 9th May 2016 (By JNTU Anantapur)
3) AP ICET 2016: 16th May 2016 (By Andhra University)
4) AP EDCET 2016: 23rd May (SV University)
5) AP PGECET 2016: 26th May (JNTU Kakinada)
6) AP LAWCET 2016: 28th May 2016 (SK University)
7) AP PGLCET 2016: 28th May 2016 (SK University)
8) AP PECET 2016: 9th May 2016 (Nagarjuna University)
The counseling for the admissions will be conducted from Amaravati, new capital of Andhra Pradesh. The department of education will start functioning from Amaravati very soon, as per the official sources.
1) AP EAMCET 2016: 5th May 2016 (By JNTU Kakinada)
2) AP ECET 2016: 9th May 2016 (By JNTU Anantapur)
3) AP ICET 2016: 16th May 2016 (By Andhra University)
4) AP EDCET 2016: 23rd May (SV University)
5) AP PGECET 2016: 26th May (JNTU Kakinada)
6) AP LAWCET 2016: 28th May 2016 (SK University)
7) AP PGLCET 2016: 28th May 2016 (SK University)
8) AP PECET 2016: 9th May 2016 (Nagarjuna University)
The counseling for the admissions will be conducted from Amaravati, new capital of Andhra Pradesh. The department of education will start functioning from Amaravati very soon, as per the official sources.
BITSAT - 2015 Cut Offs for Hyderabad Campus for BE, Pharmacy and M.Sc Admissions
Following are the BITSAT - 2015 cut off scores for Hyderabad Campus. The courses offered by BITS Hyderabad campus are BE Chemical, Civil, Electrical and Electronics, Mechanical, Computer Science, Manufacturing etc. See the cut offs for 2015-16 admissions below:
1) B.E.(Hons.): Chemical Engineering - 296
2) B.E.(Hons.): Civil Engineering - 303
3) B.E.(Hons.): Electrical and Electronics Engineering - 318
4) B.E.(Hons.): Mechanical Engineering - 315
5) B.E.(Hons.): Computer Science Engineering - 339
6) B.E.(Hons.): Electronics and Communication - 326
7) B.E.(Hons.): Electronics and Instrumentation Engineering - 311
8) B.E.(Hons.): Manufacturing Engineering - 296
9) B.Pharm.(Hons.) - 201
10) M.Sc.(Hons.): Biological Sciences - 292
11) M.Sc.(Hons.): Chemistry - 295
12) M.Sc.(Hons.): Economics - 305
13) M.Sc.(Hons.): Mathematics - 302
14) M.Sc.(Hons.): Physics - 302
1) B.E.(Hons.): Chemical Engineering - 296
2) B.E.(Hons.): Civil Engineering - 303
3) B.E.(Hons.): Electrical and Electronics Engineering - 318
4) B.E.(Hons.): Mechanical Engineering - 315
5) B.E.(Hons.): Computer Science Engineering - 339
6) B.E.(Hons.): Electronics and Communication - 326
7) B.E.(Hons.): Electronics and Instrumentation Engineering - 311
8) B.E.(Hons.): Manufacturing Engineering - 296
9) B.Pharm.(Hons.) - 201
10) M.Sc.(Hons.): Biological Sciences - 292
11) M.Sc.(Hons.): Chemistry - 295
12) M.Sc.(Hons.): Economics - 305
13) M.Sc.(Hons.): Mathematics - 302
14) M.Sc.(Hons.): Physics - 302
University of Hyderabad Distance Education Admission Notification 2016
University of Hyderabad, a Central University has announced admission notification for distance education courses for the year 2016-17. The applications are invited from Graduates for the following post graduate diploma courses to be offered in Distance Education Mode.
PG Diploma Courses: Project Management, Chemical Analysis and Quality Management, Cyber Law and Intellectual Property Rights, Business Management, Criminal Justice and Forensic Science, Governance, Human Rights, Telecommunications, Communicative English, Translation Studies in Hindi, Medicinal Botany, Library Automation and Networking and Energy Management.
Eligibility: Candidates should have Graduation in any discipline. For science and technical subjects, candidates should have studied those subjects at Graduation level.
Admission to the above programmes will be based on the performance in academic merit, past academic performance and professional experience. Application forms can be downloaded from the website www.cde.uohyd.ac.in . Last date for the receipt of filled in applications is 31st January 2016.
PG Diploma Courses: Project Management, Chemical Analysis and Quality Management, Cyber Law and Intellectual Property Rights, Business Management, Criminal Justice and Forensic Science, Governance, Human Rights, Telecommunications, Communicative English, Translation Studies in Hindi, Medicinal Botany, Library Automation and Networking and Energy Management.
Eligibility: Candidates should have Graduation in any discipline. For science and technical subjects, candidates should have studied those subjects at Graduation level.
Admission to the above programmes will be based on the performance in academic merit, past academic performance and professional experience. Application forms can be downloaded from the website www.cde.uohyd.ac.in . Last date for the receipt of filled in applications is 31st January 2016.
Nalsar Management Entrance Test - NMET 2016
NALSAR University of Law, Hyderabad has announced notification inviting applications for Nalsar Management Entrance Test (N-MET 2016) for admission into Management programmes for the academic year 2016-17.
Eligibility: Candidates should be graduates of any discipline with at least 50 percent marks in aggregate. They also need valid CAT-2015 / XAT-2016 / CMAT 2015/ GMAT/ GRE scores can apply. Candidates appearing for the final year qualifying exams are also eligible to apply.
Number of seats: 60
Interested candidates may apply online only. Last date for the receipt of filled in application forms is 29 February 2016.
Date of NMET: 27 March 2016.
Eligibility: Candidates should be graduates of any discipline with at least 50 percent marks in aggregate. They also need valid CAT-2015 / XAT-2016 / CMAT 2015/ GMAT/ GRE scores can apply. Candidates appearing for the final year qualifying exams are also eligible to apply.
Number of seats: 60
Interested candidates may apply online only. Last date for the receipt of filled in application forms is 29 February 2016.
Date of NMET: 27 March 2016.
Junior Inter IPE Exams - Botany Imp Questions for 2 Marks from 6-7 Chapters
Q: What is self-incompatibility?
A: The inability of pollen to germinate on the stigma of the same flower is called selfincompatibility or self-sterility.
Ex: Abutilon
Q: Which is the triploid tissue in a fertilized ovule? How is the triploid condition
achieved?
A: Endosperm.
Triploid condition is achieved by fertilization of second male gamete with two polar
nuclei of central cell to form a primary endosperm nucleus. The primary endosperm nucleus (PEN) divides and forms endosperm in fertilized ovule (seed).
Q: What is the function of two male gametes produced by each pollen grain in
angiosperms.
A: The first male gamete fuses with the female egg cell to form a zygote (fertilization
or syngamy).
The second male gamete fuses with the diploid secondary nucleus (triple fusion) to
form PEN (Primary endosperm nucleus) which gives rise to endosperm.
Q: Name the parts of an angiosperm flower in which development of male and female
gametophyte take place.
A: Male gametophyte - pollen grain.
Female gametophyte (embryosac) - nucellus of the ovule.
Q: Mention two strategies evolved to prevent self-pollination in flowers.
A: Dichogamy
Herkogamy
Q: Why do you think the zygote is dormant for some time in a fertilized ovule?
A: Zygote is dependent for its nourishment on the endosperm to form an embryo.
Hence it is dormant for some time until some endosperm is formed.
Q: What is meant by scutellum? In which type of seeds it is present?
A: The cotyledon of a monocot embryo is called scutellum. It is present in monocot
seeds Ex: Grasses.
Q: Define with examples endospermic and non-endospermic seeds.
A: Endospermic seeds - castor and coconut
Non endospermic seeds - groundnut, beans and peas.
A: The inability of pollen to germinate on the stigma of the same flower is called selfincompatibility or self-sterility.
Ex: Abutilon
Q: Which is the triploid tissue in a fertilized ovule? How is the triploid condition
achieved?
A: Endosperm.
Triploid condition is achieved by fertilization of second male gamete with two polar
nuclei of central cell to form a primary endosperm nucleus. The primary endosperm nucleus (PEN) divides and forms endosperm in fertilized ovule (seed).
Q: What is the function of two male gametes produced by each pollen grain in
angiosperms.
A: The first male gamete fuses with the female egg cell to form a zygote (fertilization
or syngamy).
The second male gamete fuses with the diploid secondary nucleus (triple fusion) to
form PEN (Primary endosperm nucleus) which gives rise to endosperm.
Q: Name the parts of an angiosperm flower in which development of male and female
gametophyte take place.
A: Male gametophyte - pollen grain.
Female gametophyte (embryosac) - nucellus of the ovule.
Q: Mention two strategies evolved to prevent self-pollination in flowers.
A: Dichogamy
Herkogamy
Q: Why do you think the zygote is dormant for some time in a fertilized ovule?
A: Zygote is dependent for its nourishment on the endosperm to form an embryo.
Hence it is dormant for some time until some endosperm is formed.
Q: What is meant by scutellum? In which type of seeds it is present?
A: The cotyledon of a monocot embryo is called scutellum. It is present in monocot
seeds Ex: Grasses.
Q: Define with examples endospermic and non-endospermic seeds.
A: Endospermic seeds - castor and coconut
Non endospermic seeds - groundnut, beans and peas.
IPE Junior Inter Botany Important Questions - 4 Marks from Taxonomy
Q: Describe the essential floral parts of plants belonging to Liliaceae.
A: Androecium and gynoecium are the essential floral parts. In Liliaceae the androecium
and gynoecium show the following features:
Androecium: six stamens in two whorls of three each, free or epiphyllous (attached to
tepals), anthers are dithecous, basifixed, introrse and show longitudinal dehiscence.
Gynoecium: Tricarpellary, syncarpous, ovary superior, trilocular with ovules on
axile placentation. Style is terminal, stigma trifid or capitate.
Q: Write a brief account on the class of Dicotyledonae of Bentham and Hooker's
classification.
A: Bentham and Hooker divided flowering plants into three classes:
Dicotyledonae
Gymnospermae and
Monocotyledonae
Dicotyledonae: The class dicotyledonae is divided into three subclasses based on the
number of perianth whorls and their union. They are: Polypetalae, Gamopetalae and,
Monochlamydae.
The sub class polypetalae is divided into three series:
Thalamiflorae with 6 cohorts (orders)
Disciflorae (with 4 cohorts)
Calyciflorae (5 cohorts)
The subclass gamopetalae is divided into three series:
Inferae (3 cohorts)
Heteromerae (3 cohorts) and
Bicarpellatae (4 cohorts)
The sub class monochlamydae is divided into 8 series (not divided into cohorts).
Each cohort is further divided into natural orders (families). The dicotyledonae contains 165 natural orders.
Q: Give economic importance of plants belonging to Fabaceae.
A: Economic importance of Fabaceae: The plants are a good source of proteins (pulses).
Ex: Cajanus, Cicer
Pods of beans are used as vegetables. Ex: Phaseolus
Edible oil is obtained from soya bean and groundnut. Ex: Arachis
Timber is produced by rose wood. Ex: Dalbergia
Blue dye from Indigofera and yellow dye from Butea are obtained.
Derris is used in medicine.
Crotalaria, Phaseolus are used as fodder.
Sesbania and Tephrosia are used as green manure.
A: Androecium and gynoecium are the essential floral parts. In Liliaceae the androecium
and gynoecium show the following features:
Androecium: six stamens in two whorls of three each, free or epiphyllous (attached to
tepals), anthers are dithecous, basifixed, introrse and show longitudinal dehiscence.
Gynoecium: Tricarpellary, syncarpous, ovary superior, trilocular with ovules on
axile placentation. Style is terminal, stigma trifid or capitate.
Q: Write a brief account on the class of Dicotyledonae of Bentham and Hooker's
classification.
A: Bentham and Hooker divided flowering plants into three classes:
Dicotyledonae
Gymnospermae and
Monocotyledonae
Dicotyledonae: The class dicotyledonae is divided into three subclasses based on the
number of perianth whorls and their union. They are: Polypetalae, Gamopetalae and,
Monochlamydae.
The sub class polypetalae is divided into three series:
Thalamiflorae with 6 cohorts (orders)
Disciflorae (with 4 cohorts)
Calyciflorae (5 cohorts)
The subclass gamopetalae is divided into three series:
Inferae (3 cohorts)
Heteromerae (3 cohorts) and
Bicarpellatae (4 cohorts)
The sub class monochlamydae is divided into 8 series (not divided into cohorts).
Each cohort is further divided into natural orders (families). The dicotyledonae contains 165 natural orders.
Q: Give economic importance of plants belonging to Fabaceae.
A: Economic importance of Fabaceae: The plants are a good source of proteins (pulses).
Ex: Cajanus, Cicer
Pods of beans are used as vegetables. Ex: Phaseolus
Edible oil is obtained from soya bean and groundnut. Ex: Arachis
Timber is produced by rose wood. Ex: Dalbergia
Blue dye from Indigofera and yellow dye from Butea are obtained.
Derris is used in medicine.
Crotalaria, Phaseolus are used as fodder.
Sesbania and Tephrosia are used as green manure.
Junior Inter Botany Imp 4 Marks Questions from Taxonomy of Angiosperms
Q: Write a brief note on semi technical description of a typical flowering plant.
A: Description of parts of a flowering plant is necessary for characterization, identification and classification of plants. Technical terms are used to describe the habit, habitat, vegetative characters (roots, stem and leaves) and floral characters like inflorescence, flower in general and detail, fruit, seed, pollination etc.
A typical flowering plant is described using technical terminology as follows:
Habit: Herb/ Shrub/ Tree/ Climber etc.
Habitat: Mesophyte/ xerophytes/ hydrophyte etc.
Vegetative characters:
Root: Taproot/ Fibrous root/ Modifications if any.
Stem: Woody/ herbaceous/ climber/ creeper etc
Leaf: Radical/ cauline/ venation/ phyllotaxy
Floral characters:
Inflorescence: Position and type
Flower: general description like presence or absence of bracts, bracteoles etc, merosity, sexuality, symmetry and type based on position of the ovary.
Calyx: No. of sepals, union, aestivation.
Corolla: No. of petals, union, aestivation etc.
Androecium: No. of stamens, their union, anthers etc.
Gynoecium: No. and union of carpels, No. of
locules, position of ovary, placentation etc.
Pollination: Self or cross pollination, contrivances and mechanisms.
Fruit: type
Seed: Dicot or monocot, endospermic or non endospermic.
Q: Describe the non-essential floral parts of plants belonging to Fabaceae.
A: Calyx and corolla are the non-essential floral parts. In Fabaceae the calyx and corolla show the following features:
Calyx: Sepals five, gamosepalous (united), valvate or imbricate aestivation, odd sepal
anterior.
Corolla: Five petals, polypetalous (free), papilionaceous corolla with one large standard petal, two lateral wing petals and two anterior fused petals called keel petals. The keel petals enclose essential organs. The odd petal is posterior. Vexillary or descendingly imbricate aestivation.
Q: Give an account of floral diagram.
A: Floral diagram and floral formula are used to describe the flower precisely.
Floral diagram gives information about the number of parts of a flower, their arrangement and interrelationships with one another.
The axis represents the posterior side and indicated as a dot or circle on the top of the floral diagram.
The bract represents the anterior side and indicated at the bottom of the floral diagram.
If bracteoles are present they are indicated beside the bract.
The four whorls of a flower calyx, corolla, androecium and gynoecium are indicated as
successive whorls from outside to inside.
The outermost whorl is the calyx and the innermost whorl represents gynoecium.
Floral formula is usually written below the floral diagram to describe the flower with
symbols and numbers.
A: Description of parts of a flowering plant is necessary for characterization, identification and classification of plants. Technical terms are used to describe the habit, habitat, vegetative characters (roots, stem and leaves) and floral characters like inflorescence, flower in general and detail, fruit, seed, pollination etc.
A typical flowering plant is described using technical terminology as follows:
Habit: Herb/ Shrub/ Tree/ Climber etc.
Habitat: Mesophyte/ xerophytes/ hydrophyte etc.
Vegetative characters:
Root: Taproot/ Fibrous root/ Modifications if any.
Stem: Woody/ herbaceous/ climber/ creeper etc
Leaf: Radical/ cauline/ venation/ phyllotaxy
Floral characters:
Inflorescence: Position and type
Flower: general description like presence or absence of bracts, bracteoles etc, merosity, sexuality, symmetry and type based on position of the ovary.
Calyx: No. of sepals, union, aestivation.
Corolla: No. of petals, union, aestivation etc.
Androecium: No. of stamens, their union, anthers etc.
Gynoecium: No. and union of carpels, No. of
locules, position of ovary, placentation etc.
Pollination: Self or cross pollination, contrivances and mechanisms.
Fruit: type
Seed: Dicot or monocot, endospermic or non endospermic.
Q: Describe the non-essential floral parts of plants belonging to Fabaceae.
A: Calyx and corolla are the non-essential floral parts. In Fabaceae the calyx and corolla show the following features:
Calyx: Sepals five, gamosepalous (united), valvate or imbricate aestivation, odd sepal
anterior.
Corolla: Five petals, polypetalous (free), papilionaceous corolla with one large standard petal, two lateral wing petals and two anterior fused petals called keel petals. The keel petals enclose essential organs. The odd petal is posterior. Vexillary or descendingly imbricate aestivation.
Q: Give an account of floral diagram.
A: Floral diagram and floral formula are used to describe the flower precisely.
Floral diagram gives information about the number of parts of a flower, their arrangement and interrelationships with one another.
The axis represents the posterior side and indicated as a dot or circle on the top of the floral diagram.
The bract represents the anterior side and indicated at the bottom of the floral diagram.
If bracteoles are present they are indicated beside the bract.
The four whorls of a flower calyx, corolla, androecium and gynoecium are indicated as
successive whorls from outside to inside.
The outermost whorl is the calyx and the innermost whorl represents gynoecium.
Floral formula is usually written below the floral diagram to describe the flower with
symbols and numbers.
Junior Inter Botany - Imp Questions for IPE Exams - Taxonomy of Angiosperms
Q: What is 'Omega Taxonomy'?
A: The taxonomy which uses information from other sources like embryology, cytology,
palynology, phyto chemistry, serology etc. along with morphological features is
known as 'Omega Taxonomy'.
Q: What is natural system of plant classification?
Name the scientists who followed it.
A: The system of classification that considers all possible morphological characters and their natural relationships is called natural system of classification.
Bentham and Hooker followed this system.
Q: Explain the scope and significance of Numerical taxonomy.
A: Numerical taxonomy can be used to evaluate differences and similarities between
taxonomic groups using mathematics and computers.
As this method uses numbers and codes it is easy and quick process and can be used
for hundreds of characters at a time.
Q: What is geocarpy? Name the plant which exhibits this phenomenon.
A: Production of fruit inside the soil is called geocarpy.
Arachis hypogea (groundnut).
Q: Name the type of pollination mechanism found in members of Fabaceae.
A: Piston mechanism.
Q: Give the technical description of anthers of Allium cepa.
A: Anthers of Allium cepa are dithecous, basifixed, introrse and show longitudinal
dehiscence.
Q: Give the technical description of ovary of Solanum nigrum. (2 Marks)
A: The ovary of Solanum nigrum is bi or unilocular, superior ovary with many ovules on
axile placenta. The carpels are arranged obliquely at 45°. Style is terminal and stigma
capitate.
A: The taxonomy which uses information from other sources like embryology, cytology,
palynology, phyto chemistry, serology etc. along with morphological features is
known as 'Omega Taxonomy'.
Q: What is natural system of plant classification?
Name the scientists who followed it.
A: The system of classification that considers all possible morphological characters and their natural relationships is called natural system of classification.
Bentham and Hooker followed this system.
Q: Explain the scope and significance of Numerical taxonomy.
A: Numerical taxonomy can be used to evaluate differences and similarities between
taxonomic groups using mathematics and computers.
As this method uses numbers and codes it is easy and quick process and can be used
for hundreds of characters at a time.
Q: What is geocarpy? Name the plant which exhibits this phenomenon.
A: Production of fruit inside the soil is called geocarpy.
Arachis hypogea (groundnut).
Q: Name the type of pollination mechanism found in members of Fabaceae.
A: Piston mechanism.
Q: Give the technical description of anthers of Allium cepa.
A: Anthers of Allium cepa are dithecous, basifixed, introrse and show longitudinal
dehiscence.
Q: Give the technical description of ovary of Solanum nigrum. (2 Marks)
A: The ovary of Solanum nigrum is bi or unilocular, superior ovary with many ovules on
axile placenta. The carpels are arranged obliquely at 45°. Style is terminal and stigma
capitate.
Andhra Brahmin Corporation Training Programmes 2015-16
Andhra Pradesh Brahmin Welfare Organisation (a Government of Andhra Pradesh owned organisation) has announced ABC Limited Dronacharya Scheme for the unemployed Brahman youth in the state of Andhra Pradesh. The organisation is imparting training in the following areas:
Areas of training: Arranging solar plates and management, retail industry, communication, facing interviews and analytical abilities, engineering (electrical, mechanical, electronics, IT, CSE), Information technology (Java, Dotnet, Testing), communication and interest.
Duration of the training is 12 days to 45 days. Training centers are available at Vizianagaram, Vizag, Rajahmundry, Amalapuram, Vijayawada, Nellore and Tirupati.
Candidates should have passed in Intermediate, ITI, Graduation or B.Tech (Any one of these qualifications is required.). Interested candidates can apply online through www.andhrabrahmin.org. Last date for the online registrations is 31 December 2015.
Address: Andhra Brahmin Welfare Organisation, 3rd floor, Endowments Commissionarate, Government of AP, Tilak Road, Abids, Hyderabad. Phone: 040 - 24767879.
Email: apbrahmincorporation@gmail.com
Website: www.andhrabrahmin.org .
Areas of training: Arranging solar plates and management, retail industry, communication, facing interviews and analytical abilities, engineering (electrical, mechanical, electronics, IT, CSE), Information technology (Java, Dotnet, Testing), communication and interest.
Duration of the training is 12 days to 45 days. Training centers are available at Vizianagaram, Vizag, Rajahmundry, Amalapuram, Vijayawada, Nellore and Tirupati.
Candidates should have passed in Intermediate, ITI, Graduation or B.Tech (Any one of these qualifications is required.). Interested candidates can apply online through www.andhrabrahmin.org. Last date for the online registrations is 31 December 2015.
Address: Andhra Brahmin Welfare Organisation, 3rd floor, Endowments Commissionarate, Government of AP, Tilak Road, Abids, Hyderabad. Phone: 040 - 24767879.
Email: apbrahmincorporation@gmail.com
Website: www.andhrabrahmin.org .
Sri Venkateswara University Tirupati - Distance Education Admissions 2015-16
Directorate of Distance Education (DDE), Sri Venkateswara University, Tirupati (Andhra Pradesh) has issued admission notification for the academic year 2015-16. The details of the courses are given below:
1) PG Courses: MA Telugu, English, Hindi, Economics, History, Political Science and Public Administration, Sociology, Master of Social Work, MLiSc.
2) M.Sc : Physics, Chemistry, Zoology, Botany, Psychology, Mathematics, Computer Science
3) M.Com, M.Com (FM), Executive MBA, MBA
4) BA, B.Sc (BZC, MPC, MSCs, MPE, MECs, MPCs), B.Com, B.Lic.Sc.
5) PG Diploma Courses: Industrial Relations and Personnel Management, Guidance and Counseling.
The study centers are available in the state of Andhra Pradesh only. For more details, candidates can see the website www.svudde.in .
1) PG Courses: MA Telugu, English, Hindi, Economics, History, Political Science and Public Administration, Sociology, Master of Social Work, MLiSc.
2) M.Sc : Physics, Chemistry, Zoology, Botany, Psychology, Mathematics, Computer Science
3) M.Com, M.Com (FM), Executive MBA, MBA
4) BA, B.Sc (BZC, MPC, MSCs, MPE, MECs, MPCs), B.Com, B.Lic.Sc.
5) PG Diploma Courses: Industrial Relations and Personnel Management, Guidance and Counseling.
The study centers are available in the state of Andhra Pradesh only. For more details, candidates can see the website www.svudde.in .
Junior Inter Chemistry - 2 Marks Imp Questions - Organic and Environmental Chemistry
Q: Define "COD". How is it determined?
A: The amount of oxygen required to oxidise organic material present
in polluted water. It is determined with acidified (50% H2SO4)
K2Cr2O7.
Q: Define "Sink" and "Receptor".
A: Sink: The medium which is not only effected by the pollutant but
also remains there. Trees are sinks of CO2.
Receptor: The medium which is badly effected by the pollutant. Eyes
are receptors during traffic jam.
Q: What is "Threshold Limit Value" (TLV)?
A: The permissible level of a toxic pollutant in atmosphere where a
healthy person works in that atmosphere for 8 hours per day without
any adverse effect.
Q: What is "green house effect"?
A: The phenomenon of gradual rise of temperature of earth due to
absorption of infrared radiation of sun rays by the gases like CO2,
CH4, CFCs and O3.
Q: Which oxides cause acid rains? What is its pH value?
A: Acid rains are caused by the oxides NO2 and SO2 (due to formation
of H2SO4, HNO3) when they reacts with O2 & H2O. pH of acid rain water
is below 5.6.
Q: Name two adverse effects caused by acid rains.
A: Decrease of fertility of soil as acid rains dissolve nutrients and
washes away.
Damage of historical monuments like Taj Mahal.
Q: What is "ozone hole"? Where was it first observed?
A: The depletion of ozone layer present in stratosphere is caused by
CFCs. It was first observed over the south pole.
Q: What are the harmful effects caused by ozone layer depletion?
A: Causes skin cancer & cataract.
Damage to fish productivity.
Paints & fibres fade faster.
Decrease of moisture in soil.
Q: What is 'Eutrophication'?
A: Drying of lake due to overgrowth & decay of algae and other plants
& killing of fish (due to lack of oxygen) due to over nutrition of
lake water.
Q: What is "Green Chemistry"?
A: New branch of Chemistry which helps in reduction in the production
& use of harmful pollutants by using existing knowledge of Chemistry
and other sciences.
Q: Explain the principle of Chromatography.
A: The technique in which the mixture of substances is applied on
stationary phase (solid or liquid) and a mobile phase (gas or solvent)
is allowed to move slowly over the stationary phase. The components
are separated from one another in pure form.
Q: What is "Carcinogenicity"? Name two compounds cause it.
A: Cancer producing property by fused benzene rings (3 or more), which
are formed due to incomplete combustion of tobacco, coal and
petroleum.
Eg: 1, 2, - Benzpyrene, 1, 2 - Benzanthracene
A: The amount of oxygen required to oxidise organic material present
in polluted water. It is determined with acidified (50% H2SO4)
K2Cr2O7.
Q: Define "Sink" and "Receptor".
A: Sink: The medium which is not only effected by the pollutant but
also remains there. Trees are sinks of CO2.
Receptor: The medium which is badly effected by the pollutant. Eyes
are receptors during traffic jam.
Q: What is "Threshold Limit Value" (TLV)?
A: The permissible level of a toxic pollutant in atmosphere where a
healthy person works in that atmosphere for 8 hours per day without
any adverse effect.
Q: What is "green house effect"?
A: The phenomenon of gradual rise of temperature of earth due to
absorption of infrared radiation of sun rays by the gases like CO2,
CH4, CFCs and O3.
Q: Which oxides cause acid rains? What is its pH value?
A: Acid rains are caused by the oxides NO2 and SO2 (due to formation
of H2SO4, HNO3) when they reacts with O2 & H2O. pH of acid rain water
is below 5.6.
Q: Name two adverse effects caused by acid rains.
A: Decrease of fertility of soil as acid rains dissolve nutrients and
washes away.
Damage of historical monuments like Taj Mahal.
Q: What is "ozone hole"? Where was it first observed?
A: The depletion of ozone layer present in stratosphere is caused by
CFCs. It was first observed over the south pole.
Q: What are the harmful effects caused by ozone layer depletion?
A: Causes skin cancer & cataract.
Damage to fish productivity.
Paints & fibres fade faster.
Decrease of moisture in soil.
Q: What is 'Eutrophication'?
A: Drying of lake due to overgrowth & decay of algae and other plants
& killing of fish (due to lack of oxygen) due to over nutrition of
lake water.
Q: What is "Green Chemistry"?
A: New branch of Chemistry which helps in reduction in the production
& use of harmful pollutants by using existing knowledge of Chemistry
and other sciences.
Q: Explain the principle of Chromatography.
A: The technique in which the mixture of substances is applied on
stationary phase (solid or liquid) and a mobile phase (gas or solvent)
is allowed to move slowly over the stationary phase. The components
are separated from one another in pure form.
Q: What is "Carcinogenicity"? Name two compounds cause it.
A: Cancer producing property by fused benzene rings (3 or more), which
are formed due to incomplete combustion of tobacco, coal and
petroleum.
Eg: 1, 2, - Benzpyrene, 1, 2 - Benzanthracene
Inter Second Year Zoology - 2 Marks Important Questions from Unit 4
Q: What is acromegaly? Name the hormone responsible for it.
A: a. Acromegaly is a disorder resulted due to hyper secretion of
somatotropin (of pituitary). It is characterised by elongation of
bones of jaw, limbs, thickened nose, lips, eye lids and wide finger
tips (gorilla like appearance).
b. Somatotropin.
Q: Name the gland that increases in size during childhood and
decreases in size during adulthood. What important role it play in
case of infection?
A: a. Thymus gland
b. It secretes thymosins that are necessary for differentiation of T -
lymphocytes, which provide cell mediated immunity in case of
infections.
Q: Distinguish between diabetes mellitus and diabetes incipidus.
A: a. Diabetes mellitus is caused due to the deficiency of Insulin. It
is characterised by loss of glucose through urine and formation of
ketone bodies.
b. Diabetes incipidus is caused due to the deficiency of vasopressin. It is
characterised by loss of more water through urine.
Q: What are androgens? Which cells secrete them?
A: a. Male sex hormones testosterone are called androgens.
b. Leydig cells of testes.
Q: Define immunity and immune system.
A: a. Ability of the body to resist or eliminate harmful foreign microbes and
their products is known as immunity.
b. The network of organs, cells and proteins that protect the body
from harmful microbes and their products is known as immune system.
Q: Colostrum is very much essential for new born infants. Justify.
A: a. Colostrum is the first milk produced from mother after child birth.
b. It contains antibodies like IgA which provide immunity to the new born.
Q: Explain the mechanism of vaccination or immunisation.
A: Vaccination is the process in which inactivated or weakened
pathogens or antigenic proteins of the pathogen are inoculated into
the body of the host. They initiate the production of appropriate
antibodies in the host.
Q: What are autoimmune disorders? Give two examples..
A: In some cases, our own immune system fails to recognise some of our
own body proteins and treats them as foreign antigens.
Hence the immune system attacks on our own tissues. This leads to
serious diseases called autoimmune disorders.
Q: Differentiate between perforins and granzymes.
A: a. Perforins are the enzymes (produced by cytotoxic T - cells)
which form pores to the cell membranes of infected cells.
b. Granzymes are the enzymes (produced by cytotoxic T - cells) which
enter the infected cells through the pores formed by perforins and
activate certain proteins that destroy the infected cell.
Q: Which hormone is called anti diuretic hormone? Write the name of
the gland that secretes it.
A: a. Vasopressin
b. Neurohypophysis of Pituitary.
A: a. Acromegaly is a disorder resulted due to hyper secretion of
somatotropin (of pituitary). It is characterised by elongation of
bones of jaw, limbs, thickened nose, lips, eye lids and wide finger
tips (gorilla like appearance).
b. Somatotropin.
Q: Name the gland that increases in size during childhood and
decreases in size during adulthood. What important role it play in
case of infection?
A: a. Thymus gland
b. It secretes thymosins that are necessary for differentiation of T -
lymphocytes, which provide cell mediated immunity in case of
infections.
Q: Distinguish between diabetes mellitus and diabetes incipidus.
A: a. Diabetes mellitus is caused due to the deficiency of Insulin. It
is characterised by loss of glucose through urine and formation of
ketone bodies.
b. Diabetes incipidus is caused due to the deficiency of vasopressin. It is
characterised by loss of more water through urine.
Q: What are androgens? Which cells secrete them?
A: a. Male sex hormones testosterone are called androgens.
b. Leydig cells of testes.
Q: Define immunity and immune system.
A: a. Ability of the body to resist or eliminate harmful foreign microbes and
their products is known as immunity.
b. The network of organs, cells and proteins that protect the body
from harmful microbes and their products is known as immune system.
Q: Colostrum is very much essential for new born infants. Justify.
A: a. Colostrum is the first milk produced from mother after child birth.
b. It contains antibodies like IgA which provide immunity to the new born.
Q: Explain the mechanism of vaccination or immunisation.
A: Vaccination is the process in which inactivated or weakened
pathogens or antigenic proteins of the pathogen are inoculated into
the body of the host. They initiate the production of appropriate
antibodies in the host.
Q: What are autoimmune disorders? Give two examples..
A: In some cases, our own immune system fails to recognise some of our
own body proteins and treats them as foreign antigens.
Hence the immune system attacks on our own tissues. This leads to
serious diseases called autoimmune disorders.
Q: Differentiate between perforins and granzymes.
A: a. Perforins are the enzymes (produced by cytotoxic T - cells)
which form pores to the cell membranes of infected cells.
b. Granzymes are the enzymes (produced by cytotoxic T - cells) which
enter the infected cells through the pores formed by perforins and
activate certain proteins that destroy the infected cell.
Q: Which hormone is called anti diuretic hormone? Write the name of
the gland that secretes it.
A: a. Vasopressin
b. Neurohypophysis of Pituitary.
Senior Intermediate Zoology Important Questions for IPE Exams
A: B-Lymphocytes (B-Cells) are the cells that are capable of producing
antibodies and capture the circulating antigens. BCells are produced
from the stem cells in the bone marrow in adults and in foetus from
the liver (from bursa fabricii in birds).
Mature B-cells produce antibodies. As these antibodies take antigens,
these Bcells are called immuno competent Bcells.
Mature B- Cells enter the secondary lymphoid organs and then become
memory cells (long lived and store information about specific antigen
for quick response) and plasma cells (produce antibodies).
Q: Write notes on Addison's disease and Cushing's Syndrome.
A: a. Due to hypo secretion of glucocorticoids by the adrenal cortex,
Addison's Disease is caused.
It is characterised by loss of weight, muscular weakness, fatigue and
low blood pressure. Sometimes bronzening of skin occurs.
b. Due to hyper secretion of glucocorticoids, Cushing's Syndrome
results. It is characterised by the breakdown of muscle proteins and
redistribution of body fat resulting in spindly arms and legs besides
moon face, buffalo hump.
Wound healing is poor. Rapid weight gain may also occur.
Senior Inter Zoology Important Questions - Unit IV
Q: Describe the male and female sex hormones and their actions.
A: a. Male sex hormones are called androgens (e.g., Testosterone).
They are essential for the maturation and functioning of male
accessory sex organs. They regulate the development of muscles, facial
and axillary hair, aggressiveness and low pitch (masculine) voice.
b. Female sex hormones are estrogen and progesterone. Estrogen
promotes the development and activity of the female secondary sex
organs, growth of ovarian follicles, high pitch (feminine) voice;
development of mammary glands. Progesterone prepares the uterus for
receiving and implantation of the blastocyst and inhibits
the contractions of the uterus.
Q: Explain the mechanism by which HIV multiplies and leads to AIDS.
A: a. After infection to a new person, the HIV enters the TH cells,
macrophages and dendric cells.
b. In these cells ssRNA synthesises a new DNA strand complementary to
the viral RNA in presence of reverse transcriptase.
c. Reverse transcriptase catalyses the synthesis of another strand of
DNA and thus a double strand DNA is formed.
d. Then this viral DNA gets incorporated into DNA of the host cell
with help of viral enzyme integrase.
e. Transcribed RNA from this DNA will act as the genome for the new or
it can be transcribed into viral proteins.
f. Now the infected host cells act as HIV generating factories. New
viruses are budded off from the host cell.
g. As a result, progressive decrease in number of TH cells of the
infected \ person leading to immunodeficiency.
h. Attack on certain types of cells or tissues only by viruses, such
as HIV is referred to as tissue tropism.
Q: Write short notes on immunoglobulins.
A: When antigens enter the body, B-Lymphocytes produce immunoglobulins
(antibodies), that bind to the antigens and destroy them. Antibodies
are highly specific.
a. An immunoglobulin consists of four polypeptide chains - Two light
chains (L) and two heavy chains (H). The H - chain and L - chain are
linked by disulphide bonds to form a Y - shaped molecule.
b. The ends of two arms are called variable regions.
c. The distal end of each arm of Y is known as Fab region, which binds
to the antigen.
d. The lower parts of arms are called constant regions (C).
e. The stem of Y is known as Fc region. It binds to the complement
proteins or Fc receptors of cells like phagocytes, mast cells etc.
The part of immunoglobulin that recognises and attached to an antigen
is known as paratope. The portion of antigen that binds to paratope is
known as epitope.
f. Based on the type of heavy chain, antibodies are classified into
five types, viz., IgM, IgG, IgD, IgA and IgE.
g. Antibodies (immunoglobulin) are of two types..
Membrane bound antibodies - present on cell membrane of immunocompetent cells.
Secreted antibodies - circulate in the body fluids.
A: a. Male sex hormones are called androgens (e.g., Testosterone).
They are essential for the maturation and functioning of male
accessory sex organs. They regulate the development of muscles, facial
and axillary hair, aggressiveness and low pitch (masculine) voice.
b. Female sex hormones are estrogen and progesterone. Estrogen
promotes the development and activity of the female secondary sex
organs, growth of ovarian follicles, high pitch (feminine) voice;
development of mammary glands. Progesterone prepares the uterus for
receiving and implantation of the blastocyst and inhibits
the contractions of the uterus.
Q: Explain the mechanism by which HIV multiplies and leads to AIDS.
A: a. After infection to a new person, the HIV enters the TH cells,
macrophages and dendric cells.
b. In these cells ssRNA synthesises a new DNA strand complementary to
the viral RNA in presence of reverse transcriptase.
c. Reverse transcriptase catalyses the synthesis of another strand of
DNA and thus a double strand DNA is formed.
d. Then this viral DNA gets incorporated into DNA of the host cell
with help of viral enzyme integrase.
e. Transcribed RNA from this DNA will act as the genome for the new or
it can be transcribed into viral proteins.
f. Now the infected host cells act as HIV generating factories. New
viruses are budded off from the host cell.
g. As a result, progressive decrease in number of TH cells of the
infected \ person leading to immunodeficiency.
h. Attack on certain types of cells or tissues only by viruses, such
as HIV is referred to as tissue tropism.
Q: Write short notes on immunoglobulins.
A: When antigens enter the body, B-Lymphocytes produce immunoglobulins
(antibodies), that bind to the antigens and destroy them. Antibodies
are highly specific.
a. An immunoglobulin consists of four polypeptide chains - Two light
chains (L) and two heavy chains (H). The H - chain and L - chain are
linked by disulphide bonds to form a Y - shaped molecule.
b. The ends of two arms are called variable regions.
c. The distal end of each arm of Y is known as Fab region, which binds
to the antigen.
d. The lower parts of arms are called constant regions (C).
e. The stem of Y is known as Fc region. It binds to the complement
proteins or Fc receptors of cells like phagocytes, mast cells etc.
The part of immunoglobulin that recognises and attached to an antigen
is known as paratope. The portion of antigen that binds to paratope is
known as epitope.
f. Based on the type of heavy chain, antibodies are classified into
five types, viz., IgM, IgG, IgD, IgA and IgE.
g. Antibodies (immunoglobulin) are of two types..
Membrane bound antibodies - present on cell membrane of immunocompetent cells.
Secreted antibodies - circulate in the body fluids.
NTR University B.Sc Nursing, BPT, B.Sc MLT Web Counseling Schedule - 2015
Candidates are invited to appear for the counseling for admission into
B.Sc., (Nursing) 4 YDC, Bachelor of Physiotherapy (BPT) and B.Sc.,
(Medical Lab Technology) courses offered by NTR University of Health
Sciences as per the schedule given below:
Helpline Centers: Vijayawada, Visakhapatnam, Hyderabad, Tirupati, Warangal.
Certificate Verification Schedule:
B.Sc, Nursing: 17 December 2015 to 20 December 2015.
Dates to Exercise Web Options: 18 December 2015 to 21 December 2015.
BPT: 17 December 2015 to 20 December 2015.
Dates to Exercise Web Options: 18 December 2015 to 21 December 2015.
B.Sc, MLT: 17 December 2015 to 20 December 2015.
Dates to Exercise Web Options: 18 December 2015 to 21 December 2015.
Original Certificates to be produced at the time of counseling:
1. Merit order copy issued by Dr. NTR University of Health Sciences.
2. SSC Certificate.
3. Intermediate or its equivalent examination certificate.
4. Study/ Bonafide certificates from 6th to Intermediate.
5. Permanent Caste certificate in case of BC/SC/ST candidates issued
through e – seva / Me- seva.
6. 10 years residence certificate of either of the parent / candidate
who have not studied in Andhra Pradesh/ Telangana states.
7. Transfer Certificate (TC).
8. Latest Income Certificate issued through e- seva / Me-seva.
9. Any other relevant certificates.
B.Sc., (Nursing) 4 YDC, Bachelor of Physiotherapy (BPT) and B.Sc.,
(Medical Lab Technology) courses offered by NTR University of Health
Sciences as per the schedule given below:
Helpline Centers: Vijayawada, Visakhapatnam, Hyderabad, Tirupati, Warangal.
Certificate Verification Schedule:
B.Sc, Nursing: 17 December 2015 to 20 December 2015.
Dates to Exercise Web Options: 18 December 2015 to 21 December 2015.
BPT: 17 December 2015 to 20 December 2015.
Dates to Exercise Web Options: 18 December 2015 to 21 December 2015.
B.Sc, MLT: 17 December 2015 to 20 December 2015.
Dates to Exercise Web Options: 18 December 2015 to 21 December 2015.
Original Certificates to be produced at the time of counseling:
1. Merit order copy issued by Dr. NTR University of Health Sciences.
2. SSC Certificate.
3. Intermediate or its equivalent examination certificate.
4. Study/ Bonafide certificates from 6th to Intermediate.
5. Permanent Caste certificate in case of BC/SC/ST candidates issued
through e – seva / Me- seva.
6. 10 years residence certificate of either of the parent / candidate
who have not studied in Andhra Pradesh/ Telangana states.
7. Transfer Certificate (TC).
8. Latest Income Certificate issued through e- seva / Me-seva.
9. Any other relevant certificates.
PGRRCDE Osmania University MBA, MCA, PG and Diploma Admissions 2015-16
Prof G. Ram Reddy Center for Distance Education (PGRRCDE), Osmania University (OU), Hyderabad has issued admission notification 2015-16 inviting applications for the following courses:
MBA: Candidates should have qualified in ICET 2015 OR Entrance Test conducted by PGRRCDE, OU.
MCA: Candidates should have qualified in ICET 2015 OR entrance exam of PGRRCDE of OU.
PG Courses: MA (Hindi/ Telugu / Sanskrit / Urdu), English, Philosophy, Sociology, Public Personnel Management, Economics, Political Science, History, Psychology, M.Com, M.Sc Maths / Statistics.
UG Courses: BA, BA Mathematics and Statistics, B.Com General and BBA.
PG Diploma Courses: Mathematics, English Language Teaching, Business Management, Bioinformatics, Computer Applications.
Candidates can obtain application forms from the study centers / admission centers located in Hyderabad, Rangareddy, Nalgonda, Madak, Mahaboobnagar, Adilabad, Nizamabad etc. Last date for the submission of applications is 19 December 2015. For more details, see oucde.ac.in .
MBA: Candidates should have qualified in ICET 2015 OR Entrance Test conducted by PGRRCDE, OU.
MCA: Candidates should have qualified in ICET 2015 OR entrance exam of PGRRCDE of OU.
PG Courses: MA (Hindi/ Telugu / Sanskrit / Urdu), English, Philosophy, Sociology, Public Personnel Management, Economics, Political Science, History, Psychology, M.Com, M.Sc Maths / Statistics.
UG Courses: BA, BA Mathematics and Statistics, B.Com General and BBA.
PG Diploma Courses: Mathematics, English Language Teaching, Business Management, Bioinformatics, Computer Applications.
Candidates can obtain application forms from the study centers / admission centers located in Hyderabad, Rangareddy, Nalgonda, Madak, Mahaboobnagar, Adilabad, Nizamabad etc. Last date for the submission of applications is 19 December 2015. For more details, see oucde.ac.in .
The Knowledge Society Essay Writing Project Contest for School Students - 2015
The Knowledge Society is conducting Project Work Contest on the theme APJ Abdul Kalam for high school students. The project work for middle school and for primary school students is Jawaharlal Nehru and Children and India After Independence respectively.
The students can write Essays in 5 to 15 pages. Last date for the submission of essays is 20th December 2015. For more details, contact at the following phone numbers: 040 - 6555238.
Topics for various classes:
High School Students: APJ Abdul Kalam
Middle School Students: Jawaharlal Nehru and Children
Primary School Students: India After Independence.
The students can write Essays in 5 to 15 pages. Last date for the submission of essays is 20th December 2015. For more details, contact at the following phone numbers: 040 - 6555238.
Topics for various classes:
High School Students: APJ Abdul Kalam
Middle School Students: Jawaharlal Nehru and Children
Primary School Students: India After Independence.
AMS - P Obul Reddy Public School Admission Notification 2016-17
Andhra Mahila Sabha (AMS) P. Obul Reddy Public School, Jubilee Hills, Hyderabad has announced notification for admission into Nursery, LKG and UKG classes for the academic year 2016-17. The application forms can be downloaded from the website of the school at www.amsporps.org . The school is following CBSE curriculum.
The forms are available for download from 13th December to 18th December 2015. Duly filled in application forms along with required documents should be submitted in the school office between 9 AM and 11-30 AM on all working days from 16th December to 19th December 2015.
Application forms for class XI can be downloaded from the website from 8th February 2016 to 14th February 2016. Filled in forms can be submitted from 10th February to 15th February 2016.
For admission to classes I to X is subject to vacancies available. The interested parents / students may contact the school office in the 2ned week of March 2016 for admission into these classes.
The forms are available for download from 13th December to 18th December 2015. Duly filled in application forms along with required documents should be submitted in the school office between 9 AM and 11-30 AM on all working days from 16th December to 19th December 2015.
Application forms for class XI can be downloaded from the website from 8th February 2016 to 14th February 2016. Filled in forms can be submitted from 10th February to 15th February 2016.
For admission to classes I to X is subject to vacancies available. The interested parents / students may contact the school office in the 2ned week of March 2016 for admission into these classes.
Osmania University MA, M.Com and M.Sc - CDE Results of June 2015 Exams
Osmania University, Hyderabad (Telangana State) has announced the results of the following academic examinations of MA, M.Com and M.Sc courses. The examinations for these courses were conducted in June 2015 and the results were announced on 8th December 2015.
1) MA (CDE) Public Admin June-2015
2) MA (CDE) PPM June-2015
3) MA (CDE) Telugu June-2015
4) MA (CDE) English June-2015
5) MA (CDE) Journalism June-2015
6) MA (CDE) Philosophy June-2015
7) MA (CDE) Pol.Science June-2015
8) MA (CDE) Urdu June-2015
9) M.Com (CDE) June-2015
10) MA (CDE) Hindi June-2015
11) M.Sc (CDE) Mathematics June-2015
12) MA (CDE) Sanskrit June-2015
13) M.Sc (CDE) Stastistics June-2015
14) MA (CDE) Economics June-2015
15) MA (CDE) History June-2015
16) MA (CDE) Psychology June-2015
17) MA (CDE) Sociology June-2015
18) MA (CDE) Vedic Astrology June-2015
Students can check the results of these examinations through Osmania University website at www.osmania.ac.in by entering their hall ticket number.
1) MA (CDE) Public Admin June-2015
2) MA (CDE) PPM June-2015
3) MA (CDE) Telugu June-2015
4) MA (CDE) English June-2015
5) MA (CDE) Journalism June-2015
6) MA (CDE) Philosophy June-2015
7) MA (CDE) Pol.Science June-2015
8) MA (CDE) Urdu June-2015
9) M.Com (CDE) June-2015
10) MA (CDE) Hindi June-2015
11) M.Sc (CDE) Mathematics June-2015
12) MA (CDE) Sanskrit June-2015
13) M.Sc (CDE) Stastistics June-2015
14) MA (CDE) Economics June-2015
15) MA (CDE) History June-2015
16) MA (CDE) Psychology June-2015
17) MA (CDE) Sociology June-2015
18) MA (CDE) Vedic Astrology June-2015
Students can check the results of these examinations through Osmania University website at www.osmania.ac.in by entering their hall ticket number.
Telangana SSC - Tenth Class Public Exams Schedule - March 2016
The Government of Telangana State has released the SSC / 10th Class / Tenth Class examinations schedule for the academic year 2015-16. The SSC exams - March 2016 in Telangana will commence from 21st March and will end on 9th April 2016. Following is the subject and date wise schedule:
21 March: First Language Paper -1
22 March: First Language Paper -2
24 March: Second Language
26 March: English -1
28 March: English -2
29 March: Mathematics -1
30 March: Mathematics - 2
31 March: General Science - 1
1 April: General Science Paper - 2
2 April: Social Studies Paper - 1
4 April: Social Studies Paper -2
6 April: Oriental SSC Main Language -1
7 April: Oriental SSC Main Language -2
9 April: SSC Vocational
Students are requested to keep tracking the official website of Department of School Education, Government of Telangana for any changes in the proposed exam dates and schedules.
21 March: First Language Paper -1
22 March: First Language Paper -2
24 March: Second Language
26 March: English -1
28 March: English -2
29 March: Mathematics -1
30 March: Mathematics - 2
31 March: General Science - 1
1 April: General Science Paper - 2
2 April: Social Studies Paper - 1
4 April: Social Studies Paper -2
6 April: Oriental SSC Main Language -1
7 April: Oriental SSC Main Language -2
9 April: SSC Vocational
Students are requested to keep tracking the official website of Department of School Education, Government of Telangana for any changes in the proposed exam dates and schedules.
AP 10th Class Exams Schedule - March 2016 for Regular and Vocations Streams
The Government of Andhra Pradesh has released the SSC / 10th Class examinations schedule for the academic year 2015-16. The SSC exams - March 2016 will commence from 21st March and will end on 9th April 2016. Following is the subject wise schedule:
21 March: First Language Paper -1
22 March: First Language Paper -2
24 March: Second Language
26 March: English -1
28 March: English -2
29 March: Mathematics -1
30 March: Mathematics - 2
31 March: General Science - 1
1 April: General Science Paper - 2
2 April: Social Studies Paper - 1
4 April: Social Studies Paper -2
6 April: Oriental SSC Main Language -1
7 April: Oriental SSC Main Language -2
9 April: SSC Vocational
Students are requested to keep tracking the official website of Department of School Education, Government of Andhra Pradesh for any changes in the exam dates and schedules.
21 March: First Language Paper -1
22 March: First Language Paper -2
24 March: Second Language
26 March: English -1
28 March: English -2
29 March: Mathematics -1
30 March: Mathematics - 2
31 March: General Science - 1
1 April: General Science Paper - 2
2 April: Social Studies Paper - 1
4 April: Social Studies Paper -2
6 April: Oriental SSC Main Language -1
7 April: Oriental SSC Main Language -2
9 April: SSC Vocational
Students are requested to keep tracking the official website of Department of School Education, Government of Andhra Pradesh for any changes in the exam dates and schedules.
NTR University Web Counseling for Nursing, BPT and MLT Admissions 2015-16
Dr NTR University of Health Sciences (NTRUHS), Vijayawada will be conducting web counseling for admission into B.Sc Nursing and Bachelor of Physiotherapy (BPT) for the academic year 2015-16. The web counseling will be conducted for admission into colleges in Telangana and Andhra Pradesh states.
There are 36 BPT colleges in Telangana and AP with 1690 seats and 47 MLT colleges with 2085 seats in both the states. For B.Sc Nursing, there are 204 colleges with 10427 seats for the current academic year.
The applications for these courses will be scrutinized in Hyderabad, Vijayawada, Warangal, Visakhpatnam centers by the concerned universities from 15th December 2015. The NTR University will release counseling schedule.
5214 candidates have applied for B.Sc Nursing course. 1191 candidates have applied for BPS and another 775 candidates applied for MLT course in Telangana and Andhra Pradesh states.
There are 36 BPT colleges in Telangana and AP with 1690 seats and 47 MLT colleges with 2085 seats in both the states. For B.Sc Nursing, there are 204 colleges with 10427 seats for the current academic year.
The applications for these courses will be scrutinized in Hyderabad, Vijayawada, Warangal, Visakhpatnam centers by the concerned universities from 15th December 2015. The NTR University will release counseling schedule.
5214 candidates have applied for B.Sc Nursing course. 1191 candidates have applied for BPS and another 775 candidates applied for MLT course in Telangana and Andhra Pradesh states.
AP Intermediate Second Year Exams Time Table March 2016
Here is the AP Intermediate Second Year examinations time table for the March 2016. The examinations will start from 3rd March and end on 21st March 2016. The practical examinations will be held in February 2016. Following is the theory examinations schedule for IPE March 2016 (Second Year):
AP Inter First Year Exams Latest Time Table
Following is the schedule of Intermediate Public Exams (IPE March 2016) for Junior Intermediate of Board of Intermediate Education, Government of Andhra Pradesh. The First year IPE exams will start from 2nd March and close on 19th March 2016. Following is the detailed schedule:
Chinmaya Vidyalaya Hyderabad LKG Admissions 2016-17
Chinmaya Sishuvihar, under the management of Chinmaya Seva Trust, Hyderabad has issued admission notification for LKG for the academic year 2016-17. The school is also known as Chinmaya Vidyalaya and located at Kundanbagh (Begumpet), Hyderabad.
The application forms will be issued on 12th, 13th and 14th December 2015 between 10 AM and 1 PM in the premises of Chinmaya Vidyalaya. The applicants have to produce photocopy of the Birth Certificate.
Children born on or before 31st March 2013 only eligible for LKG admissions. Age relaxation is not allowed in admissions. For siblings, you need to enclose ID proof of existing student.
Address: Chinmaya Sisuvihar, Sandeepany Kailas, Kundanbagh, Begumpet, Hyderabad. Phone: 040 - 2341 8012.
The application forms will be issued on 12th, 13th and 14th December 2015 between 10 AM and 1 PM in the premises of Chinmaya Vidyalaya. The applicants have to produce photocopy of the Birth Certificate.
Children born on or before 31st March 2013 only eligible for LKG admissions. Age relaxation is not allowed in admissions. For siblings, you need to enclose ID proof of existing student.
Address: Chinmaya Sisuvihar, Sandeepany Kailas, Kundanbagh, Begumpet, Hyderabad. Phone: 040 - 2341 8012.
AS Rao Science Talent Search Exam 2015 - Screening and Final Tests
Dr A S Rao Awards Council will be conducting Screening Test (28th Science Talent Search Exam - STSE) on Sunday, 6th December 2015 from 10 AM to 1 PM for 9th and 10th Class students. This test will have 120 multiple choice questions in 4 subjects: Mathematics, Physics, Chemistry and Biology.
Final Test for those qualified in Screening Test will be conducted on Sunday, 27th December 2015. The final test will have 20 subjective questions, 5 in each of 4 subjects. Students have to write answers in the space provided only.
Syllabus for the test is as rescribed by the Governments of Telangana and Andhra Pradesh for 9th and 10th Classes. The winners of the STSE will get cash awards as mentioned below:
1st Rank: Rs. 25000 (for each class)
2nd Rank: Rs. 15000 (for each class)
3rd Rank: Rs. 10000 (for each class)
Awardees of 9th class will be invited to participate in a Residential Science Workshop, scheduled to be held for 6 days during summer in Hyderabad in April / May 2016. For more details of the examination, see www.asrac.org .
Final Test for those qualified in Screening Test will be conducted on Sunday, 27th December 2015. The final test will have 20 subjective questions, 5 in each of 4 subjects. Students have to write answers in the space provided only.
Syllabus for the test is as rescribed by the Governments of Telangana and Andhra Pradesh for 9th and 10th Classes. The winners of the STSE will get cash awards as mentioned below:
1st Rank: Rs. 25000 (for each class)
2nd Rank: Rs. 15000 (for each class)
3rd Rank: Rs. 10000 (for each class)
Awardees of 9th class will be invited to participate in a Residential Science Workshop, scheduled to be held for 6 days during summer in Hyderabad in April / May 2016. For more details of the examination, see www.asrac.org .
Senior Inter Botany Imp 2 Marks Questions - Mineral Nutrition Chapter
Q: Define Hydroponics.
A: The technique of growing plants in a standard, specific,
nutritional liquid medium or solution without or outside the soil is
called Hydroponics. It was first started by Julius von Sachs. It is
also called soil - less culture or solution culture.
Q: How do you categorize a particular essential element as a macro or
micronutrient?
A: The essential element which is required in large amounts (more than
10 m mole kg-1 of dry matter) and forms a part of the protoplasm is
called macronutrient or Major element. Ex: Mg, Ca
The essential element which is required in less amounts (less than 10
m mole kg-1 of dry matter) is called micro or minor or trace element.
It do not forms a constituent of the protoplasm. Ex: Fd, Zn
Q: Give two examples of essential elements that act as activators for enzymes?
A: Iron - Minor element - Activator for Catalase.
Manganese - Minor element - Activator for IAA Oxidase.
Q: Name the essential mineral elements that play an important role in
photolysis of water?
A: Calcium, Manganese and Chlorine play important role in photolysis
of water. Chlorine is not a mineral element.
Q: Out of the 17 essential elements, which elements are called
non-mineral essential elements?
A: Carbon, Hydrogen, Oxygen are non-mineral, essential macro elements.
They are absorbed in the form of CO2, H2O and O2.
Q: Name 2 amino acids in which sulphur is present?
A: Cysteine, Cystine and Methionine consist Sulphur.
Q: When is an essential element said to be deficient?
A: The concentration of the essential element below which plant growth
is retarded is termed as critical concentration. The element is said
to be deficient when present below the critical concentration.
Q: Name two elements whose deficiency symptoms first appear in young leaves?
A: Deficiency symptoms of Sulphur and Calcium first appear in young
leaves as they are not mobile elements.
Q: Explain the role of pink colour pigment in the root nodules of
legume plants? What is it called?
A: The pink colour pigment protects nitrogenase enzyme from Oxygen. It
is called Leg - haemoglobin. It is an Oxygen scavenger.
Q: Excess Mn in soils leads to deficiency of Ca, Mg and Fe. Justify.
A: Manganese competes with Iron and Magnesium for uptake. Manganese
competes with Magnesium for binding with Enzyme. Manganese inhibits
the translocation of Calcium in the shoot apex. Therefore excess of Mn
in soil leads to the deficiency of Ca, Mg & Fe.
Q: What acts as a reservoir of essential elements for plants? By what
process it is formed?
A: Soil is reservoir of essential elements for plants. They are formed
physical weathering and break down of rocks.
Q: Which element is regarded as the 17th essential element? Name a
disease caused by its deficiency?
A: Nickel is the 17th essential element.
The physiological disease caused by its deficiency is Mouse ear in Barley.
Q: Nitrogen fixation is shown by prokaryotes only. Why not by eukaryotes?
A: The enzyme, Nitrogenase or Dinitrogenase which can reduce
atmospheric molecular nitrogen to ammonia is present in certain
prokaryotes only.
Ex: Nostoc, Anabaena (Blue green algae), Rhizobium (Bacteria). So
prokaryotes alone fix nitrogen. As eukaryotes do not have this
enzyme they can not fix nitrogen.
Q: Give an example for each of the aerobic and anaerobic nitrogen
fixing prokaryotes?
A: Aerobic ... Azotobacter, Beijernickia; Anaerobic - Rhodosphirillum.
Q: Non- legume plants also form root nodules. Justify.
A: Frankia, a microbe produces root nodules in non- legume called Alnus.
Q: Name the essential elements present in nitrogenase enzyme? What
type of essential elements are they?
A: Iron and Molybdenum. These two are micro mineral essential elements.
Q: How many ATPs of energy is required to fix one molecule of
atmospheric nitrogen by biological mode? What is the source of that
energy?
A: 16 ATPs are required to fix one molecule of atmospheric nitrogen by
biological mode. The source of this energy is respiration of host
cells.
A: The technique of growing plants in a standard, specific,
nutritional liquid medium or solution without or outside the soil is
called Hydroponics. It was first started by Julius von Sachs. It is
also called soil - less culture or solution culture.
Q: How do you categorize a particular essential element as a macro or
micronutrient?
A: The essential element which is required in large amounts (more than
10 m mole kg-1 of dry matter) and forms a part of the protoplasm is
called macronutrient or Major element. Ex: Mg, Ca
The essential element which is required in less amounts (less than 10
m mole kg-1 of dry matter) is called micro or minor or trace element.
It do not forms a constituent of the protoplasm. Ex: Fd, Zn
Q: Give two examples of essential elements that act as activators for enzymes?
A: Iron - Minor element - Activator for Catalase.
Manganese - Minor element - Activator for IAA Oxidase.
Q: Name the essential mineral elements that play an important role in
photolysis of water?
A: Calcium, Manganese and Chlorine play important role in photolysis
of water. Chlorine is not a mineral element.
Q: Out of the 17 essential elements, which elements are called
non-mineral essential elements?
A: Carbon, Hydrogen, Oxygen are non-mineral, essential macro elements.
They are absorbed in the form of CO2, H2O and O2.
Q: Name 2 amino acids in which sulphur is present?
A: Cysteine, Cystine and Methionine consist Sulphur.
Q: When is an essential element said to be deficient?
A: The concentration of the essential element below which plant growth
is retarded is termed as critical concentration. The element is said
to be deficient when present below the critical concentration.
Q: Name two elements whose deficiency symptoms first appear in young leaves?
A: Deficiency symptoms of Sulphur and Calcium first appear in young
leaves as they are not mobile elements.
Q: Explain the role of pink colour pigment in the root nodules of
legume plants? What is it called?
A: The pink colour pigment protects nitrogenase enzyme from Oxygen. It
is called Leg - haemoglobin. It is an Oxygen scavenger.
Q: Excess Mn in soils leads to deficiency of Ca, Mg and Fe. Justify.
A: Manganese competes with Iron and Magnesium for uptake. Manganese
competes with Magnesium for binding with Enzyme. Manganese inhibits
the translocation of Calcium in the shoot apex. Therefore excess of Mn
in soil leads to the deficiency of Ca, Mg & Fe.
Q: What acts as a reservoir of essential elements for plants? By what
process it is formed?
A: Soil is reservoir of essential elements for plants. They are formed
physical weathering and break down of rocks.
Q: Which element is regarded as the 17th essential element? Name a
disease caused by its deficiency?
A: Nickel is the 17th essential element.
The physiological disease caused by its deficiency is Mouse ear in Barley.
Q: Nitrogen fixation is shown by prokaryotes only. Why not by eukaryotes?
A: The enzyme, Nitrogenase or Dinitrogenase which can reduce
atmospheric molecular nitrogen to ammonia is present in certain
prokaryotes only.
Ex: Nostoc, Anabaena (Blue green algae), Rhizobium (Bacteria). So
prokaryotes alone fix nitrogen. As eukaryotes do not have this
enzyme they can not fix nitrogen.
Q: Give an example for each of the aerobic and anaerobic nitrogen
fixing prokaryotes?
A: Aerobic ... Azotobacter, Beijernickia; Anaerobic - Rhodosphirillum.
Q: Non- legume plants also form root nodules. Justify.
A: Frankia, a microbe produces root nodules in non- legume called Alnus.
Q: Name the essential elements present in nitrogenase enzyme? What
type of essential elements are they?
A: Iron and Molybdenum. These two are micro mineral essential elements.
Q: How many ATPs of energy is required to fix one molecule of
atmospheric nitrogen by biological mode? What is the source of that
energy?
A: 16 ATPs are required to fix one molecule of atmospheric nitrogen by
biological mode. The source of this energy is respiration of host
cells.
Senior Inter Botany 4 Marks Imp Questions - Mineral Nutrition
Q: What will happen if a healthy plant is supplied with excess
essential elements.
A: If excess of Nitrogen is supplied to a healthy plant, its
Vegetative growth is more but reproductive growth is inhibited. It
results in poor yield.
Moderate increase in the concentration of micronutrients causes toxicity.
Any mineral ion concentration in tissues that reduces dry weight of
tissues by about 10% is considered toxic.
Excess of one element may inhibit the uptake of another element.
Excess of Manganese shows Brown spots in the leaf surrounded by
chlorotic veins. Excess of Manganese competes with other micro
elements (Fe, Ca and Mg) and inhibits their uptake. So symptoms of Mn
toxicity
also results in the deficiency symptoms of Fe, Ca and Mg.
Q: Explain the steps involved in the formation of root nodule?
A: The following steps are observed in the formation of root nodule:
1) Bacteria are attracted by sugars, amino acids and flavonoids
secreted by the roots of leguminous plants.
2) Legumes select compatible strains of Rhizobium by specific proteins
called Lectins.
3) Bacteria multiply and secrete curling factor. Root hair shows
curling which is called Shepherd's crook.
4) Bacteria invade the root hair and produce cellulase, pectinase to
digest the cell wall.
5) Bacteria breach the cell wall. Plasma membrane invagination forms
infection thread and carries bacteria into cortical cell.
6) Cortical cells produce Auxins, multiply and root nodule is formed
into which bacteria are released.
7) Bacteria also stimulate pericycle cells to divide.
8) The nodule develops vascular connection.
9) It consists Leghaemoglobin (Pink coloured), Nitrogenase. The
bacterial cells in the nodule become spherical & called bacteroid.
essential elements.
A: If excess of Nitrogen is supplied to a healthy plant, its
Vegetative growth is more but reproductive growth is inhibited. It
results in poor yield.
Moderate increase in the concentration of micronutrients causes toxicity.
Any mineral ion concentration in tissues that reduces dry weight of
tissues by about 10% is considered toxic.
Excess of one element may inhibit the uptake of another element.
Excess of Manganese shows Brown spots in the leaf surrounded by
chlorotic veins. Excess of Manganese competes with other micro
elements (Fe, Ca and Mg) and inhibits their uptake. So symptoms of Mn
toxicity
also results in the deficiency symptoms of Fe, Ca and Mg.
Q: Explain the steps involved in the formation of root nodule?
A: The following steps are observed in the formation of root nodule:
1) Bacteria are attracted by sugars, amino acids and flavonoids
secreted by the roots of leguminous plants.
2) Legumes select compatible strains of Rhizobium by specific proteins
called Lectins.
3) Bacteria multiply and secrete curling factor. Root hair shows
curling which is called Shepherd's crook.
4) Bacteria invade the root hair and produce cellulase, pectinase to
digest the cell wall.
5) Bacteria breach the cell wall. Plasma membrane invagination forms
infection thread and carries bacteria into cortical cell.
6) Cortical cells produce Auxins, multiply and root nodule is formed
into which bacteria are released.
7) Bacteria also stimulate pericycle cells to divide.
8) The nodule develops vascular connection.
9) It consists Leghaemoglobin (Pink coloured), Nitrogenase. The
bacterial cells in the nodule become spherical & called bacteroid.
Senior Inter Botany Important Questions - Mineral Nutrition - 4 Marks
Q: 'All elements that are present in a plant need not be essential for
its survival'. Justify.
A: Plants absorb 60 or even more mineral elements from the soil. All
60 are not present in one plant. In the same way all elements present
in a plant are useful to it. Only the useful elements are called
essential elements.
Q: Name at least five different deficiency symptoms in plants.
Describe them, and correlate them with concerned mineral deficiency.
A: Deficiency symptoms of
1. Zinc:
1) Little leaf disease
2) Leaf rosette
3) Mottled leaf
4) Interveinal Chlorosis - Necrosis
Zinc is a mobile, micro mineral essential element. It is an activator
for Carboxylase. It is needed for the synthesis of Auxins. It is
absorbed in the form of Zn2+.
2. Copper:
1) Die back disease of shoots in Citrus
2) Necrosis of young leaf tips
3) Exanthema
4) Reclamation disease of cereals and legumes
5) Blackening Potato tubers
3. Boron:
1) Heart rot in beets (Brown heart)
2) Water core in turnip
3) Heart rot in carrot
4) Fibres in apple fruit
5) Death of root tip and stem tip
4. Molybdenum:
1) Whiptail disease in Cauliflower
2) Interveinal Chlorosis
3) Inhibition of flowering
4) Mottled Chlorosis
5) Upper half leaf shows withering
5. Chlorine:
1) Bronzing in legumes
2) Flower abseision
3) Swollen root tips
Q: Some angiospermic plants adapted to absorb molecular nitrogen from
atmosphere. Explain, citing two examples.
A: Leguminaceae members and some plants like Myrica, Alnus, Casuarina
have adapted to absorb molecular nitrogen with the help of bacteria.
It occurs through symbiotic nitrogen fixation.
Rhizobium fixes molecular nitrogen to Legumes, and also to a
non-leguminous member called Parasponia.
Filamentous, Actinomycetus bacteria like Frankia fixes atmospheric
molecular nitrogen in Alnus, Casuarina and Myrica.
Nostoc fixes nitrogen in the stem glands of Gunnera.
Azospirillum, an associated symbiont fixes nitrogen in Maize, Sorghum,
Wheat, Barley and Finger millets.
its survival'. Justify.
A: Plants absorb 60 or even more mineral elements from the soil. All
60 are not present in one plant. In the same way all elements present
in a plant are useful to it. Only the useful elements are called
essential elements.
Q: Name at least five different deficiency symptoms in plants.
Describe them, and correlate them with concerned mineral deficiency.
A: Deficiency symptoms of
1. Zinc:
1) Little leaf disease
2) Leaf rosette
3) Mottled leaf
4) Interveinal Chlorosis - Necrosis
Zinc is a mobile, micro mineral essential element. It is an activator
for Carboxylase. It is needed for the synthesis of Auxins. It is
absorbed in the form of Zn2+.
2. Copper:
1) Die back disease of shoots in Citrus
2) Necrosis of young leaf tips
3) Exanthema
4) Reclamation disease of cereals and legumes
5) Blackening Potato tubers
3. Boron:
1) Heart rot in beets (Brown heart)
2) Water core in turnip
3) Heart rot in carrot
4) Fibres in apple fruit
5) Death of root tip and stem tip
4. Molybdenum:
1) Whiptail disease in Cauliflower
2) Interveinal Chlorosis
3) Inhibition of flowering
4) Mottled Chlorosis
5) Upper half leaf shows withering
5. Chlorine:
1) Bronzing in legumes
2) Flower abseision
3) Swollen root tips
Q: Some angiospermic plants adapted to absorb molecular nitrogen from
atmosphere. Explain, citing two examples.
A: Leguminaceae members and some plants like Myrica, Alnus, Casuarina
have adapted to absorb molecular nitrogen with the help of bacteria.
It occurs through symbiotic nitrogen fixation.
Rhizobium fixes molecular nitrogen to Legumes, and also to a
non-leguminous member called Parasponia.
Filamentous, Actinomycetus bacteria like Frankia fixes atmospheric
molecular nitrogen in Alnus, Casuarina and Myrica.
Nostoc fixes nitrogen in the stem glands of Gunnera.
Azospirillum, an associated symbiont fixes nitrogen in Maize, Sorghum,
Wheat, Barley and Finger millets.
Senior Inter Physics Important Questions - Wave Optics
Q: Explain Doppler effect in light. Distinguish between Red Shift and
Blue Shift. (4 marks)
A: Doppler effect in light:
To an observer on the earth light from a star moving towards him
appears with high frequency or less wavelength. Similarly the apparent
wavelength of light received by the observer is high in the case of
star moving away from him.
This change in apparent frequency or wavelength of light due to
relative motion between light source and observer is called Doppler
effect in light.
Red Shift: When light source is moving away from an observer, the
frequency of light seen by the observer is less than the frequency of
light emitted by the source (or) the apparent wavelength is more than
the wavelength of light emitted by the source i.e., apparent
wavelength shifts towards the red end of the visible spectrum.
Blue Shift: When a light source is approaching an observer the
apparent frequency of light seen by the observer is more than the
frequency of light emitted from the source (or) the apparent
wavelength decreases i.e. shifts towards the blue end of the visible
spectrum.
Q: Explain Brewster's law. (2 marks)
A: When unpolarised light is incident on transparent surface, at a
particular angle of incidence called Brewster angle (or) polarizing
angle (ip), the reflected light wave is totally polarised and is
perpendicular to the refracted
light wave. The tangent of the angle of polarization is numerically
equal to the refractive index (ì) of the refracting medium.
ì = tan (ip)
Q: What is the shape of wavefront is each of the following cases
(a) Light diverging from point source.
(b) Light emerging out of a convex lens when a point source is placed
at its focus.
(c) The portion of wavefront of light from a distance star intercepted
by the earth. (2 marks)
A: (a) Shape of wavefront is spherical
(b) Shape of wavefront is plane.
(c) Shape of wavefront is plane.
Blue Shift. (4 marks)
A: Doppler effect in light:
To an observer on the earth light from a star moving towards him
appears with high frequency or less wavelength. Similarly the apparent
wavelength of light received by the observer is high in the case of
star moving away from him.
This change in apparent frequency or wavelength of light due to
relative motion between light source and observer is called Doppler
effect in light.
Red Shift: When light source is moving away from an observer, the
frequency of light seen by the observer is less than the frequency of
light emitted by the source (or) the apparent wavelength is more than
the wavelength of light emitted by the source i.e., apparent
wavelength shifts towards the red end of the visible spectrum.
Blue Shift: When a light source is approaching an observer the
apparent frequency of light seen by the observer is more than the
frequency of light emitted from the source (or) the apparent
wavelength decreases i.e. shifts towards the blue end of the visible
spectrum.
Q: Explain Brewster's law. (2 marks)
A: When unpolarised light is incident on transparent surface, at a
particular angle of incidence called Brewster angle (or) polarizing
angle (ip), the reflected light wave is totally polarised and is
perpendicular to the refracted
light wave. The tangent of the angle of polarization is numerically
equal to the refractive index (ì) of the refracting medium.
ì = tan (ip)
Q: What is the shape of wavefront is each of the following cases
(a) Light diverging from point source.
(b) Light emerging out of a convex lens when a point source is placed
at its focus.
(c) The portion of wavefront of light from a distance star intercepted
by the earth. (2 marks)
A: (a) Shape of wavefront is spherical
(b) Shape of wavefront is plane.
(c) Shape of wavefront is plane.
Junior Inter Zoology Unit V - Important 4 Marks Question
Q: What are lateral appendages of flagellae? Based on their presence or absence, write various types of flagellae giving at least one example for each type.
A: a. Some types of flagellae have one or more rows of short, lateral appendages called mastigonemes and flimmers.
b. Based on the occurrence of the lateral appendages, flagellae are classified into the following five types:
1. Stichonematic: One row of lateral appendages on axoneme. Ex: Euglena
2. Pantonematic: Two or more rows of lateral appendages on
axoneme. Ex: Monax
3. Acronematic: Lateral appendages are absent. But axoneme is bare
at the tip. Ex: Polytoma
4. Pantacronematic: Axoneme has two or more rows of lateral
appendages and axoneme is bare at the tip. Ex: Urceolus
5. Anematic: Lateral appendages are absent. Axoneme is sheathed entire length. Ex: Chilomonas.
A: a. Some types of flagellae have one or more rows of short, lateral appendages called mastigonemes and flimmers.
b. Based on the occurrence of the lateral appendages, flagellae are classified into the following five types:
1. Stichonematic: One row of lateral appendages on axoneme. Ex: Euglena
2. Pantonematic: Two or more rows of lateral appendages on
axoneme. Ex: Monax
3. Acronematic: Lateral appendages are absent. But axoneme is bare
at the tip. Ex: Polytoma
4. Pantacronematic: Axoneme has two or more rows of lateral
appendages and axoneme is bare at the tip. Ex: Urceolus
5. Anematic: Lateral appendages are absent. Axoneme is sheathed entire length. Ex: Chilomonas.
Inter First Year Zoology Unit V Important Questions for 2 Marks
Q: List out any two differences between a flagellum and a cilium.
A:
Flagellum:
a. It is a long and whip like structure.
b. Flagellae generally originate in the anterior part of the body.
c. flagellae exhibit undular movements.
Cilium:
a. It is a short and hair like structure.
b. Cilia are present all over the body or confined to peristome only.
c. Cilia exhibit pendular movements.
Q: Draw a labelled diagram of T. S. of flagellum.
A:
A:
Flagellum:
a. It is a long and whip like structure.
b. Flagellae generally originate in the anterior part of the body.
c. flagellae exhibit undular movements.
Cilium:
a. It is a short and hair like structure.
b. Cilia are present all over the body or confined to peristome only.
c. Cilia exhibit pendular movements.
Q: Draw a labelled diagram of T. S. of flagellum.
A:
Inter First Year Zoology 2 Marks Important Questions - Unit V
Q: What is a kinety?
A: In ciliate protozoans, a row of kinetosomes along with kinetodesmata constitute a kinety. It lies just below the pellicle.
Q: What are dynein arms? What is their significance?
A: a. Each A tubule of the each peripheral tubule of flagellum has a pair of arms,
known as dynein arms. They extend towards B tubule of the adjacent doublet.
b. Dynein arms help in bending of flagellum.
Q: Differentiate proter and opisthe.
A: During binary fission in Paramecium, the daughter individual formed from the anterior
half of the parent is called proter and that is formed from the posterior part is
known as opisthe.
Q: Define conjugation with reference to ciliates. Give two examples.
A: Temporary union of two ciliates for the exchange of micronuclear material is
known as conjugation. Eg: Paramecium, Vorticella.
Q: Why do we refer to the offspring formed by asexual method of reproduction, a
clone?
A: As the daughter individuals formed by asexual reproduction are morphologically
as well as genetically similar to that of the parent organism, they are described as
a clone.
A: In ciliate protozoans, a row of kinetosomes along with kinetodesmata constitute a kinety. It lies just below the pellicle.
Q: What are dynein arms? What is their significance?
A: a. Each A tubule of the each peripheral tubule of flagellum has a pair of arms,
known as dynein arms. They extend towards B tubule of the adjacent doublet.
b. Dynein arms help in bending of flagellum.
Q: Differentiate proter and opisthe.
A: During binary fission in Paramecium, the daughter individual formed from the anterior
half of the parent is called proter and that is formed from the posterior part is
known as opisthe.
Q: Define conjugation with reference to ciliates. Give two examples.
A: Temporary union of two ciliates for the exchange of micronuclear material is
known as conjugation. Eg: Paramecium, Vorticella.
Q: Why do we refer to the offspring formed by asexual method of reproduction, a
clone?
A: As the daughter individuals formed by asexual reproduction are morphologically
as well as genetically similar to that of the parent organism, they are described as
a clone.
Junior Intermediate Zoology Unit - V Important Questions for 4 Marks
Q: Describe the process of longitudinal binary fission in Euglena.
A: Longitudinal binary fission takes place in Euglena during favourable conditions.
The division of nucleus during binary fission is known as karyokinesis and that of cytoplasm is called cytokinesis.
Euglena is a common protozoan in fresh water bodies and is green in colour due to
presence of chromatophores containing chlorophyll. Euglena is a spindle shaped individual having two flagellae in the anterior end arising from two basal granules
besides cytostome, cytopharynx, reservoir, contractile vacuole, stigma, paraflagellar
body etc. Almost in the middle of the body, there is a nucleus.
a. During binary fission, nucleus divides by mitosis.
b. Then the basal granules and chromatophores also divide.
c. A constriction appears in the anterior end, grow deep dividing the parent Euglena into two daughter Euglenae.
d. The basal granules and flagellae are retained by one daughter and the other acquires new flagellae from the newly formed basal granules.
e. Stigma, paraflagellar body and contractile vacuole of the parent disappear and new
structures are formed in both daughter Euglenae.
f. As the daughter Euglenae formed after longitudinal binary fission are like mirror
images, the binary fission in Euglena is also called symmetrogenic division.
Q: Write short notes on multiple fission.
A: Division of the parent individual into many daughter individuals is known as multiple fission. Generally, multiple fission takes place during unfavourable conditions. In multiple fission, nucleus of the parent individual divides many times by mitosis. Thus many nuclei are formed. Each nucleus is surrounded by a bit of cytoplasm and thus many small daughter individuals are formed. When the body covering of the parent ruptures, all the daughter individuals are liberated out and each one develops into a complete organism.
Eg: Multiple fission in Plasmodium is described as schizogony, male gametogony
and sporogony.
Multiple fission in Amoeba is known as sporulation.
Q: Draw neat labelled diagram of Euglena.
A:
A: Longitudinal binary fission takes place in Euglena during favourable conditions.
The division of nucleus during binary fission is known as karyokinesis and that of cytoplasm is called cytokinesis.
Euglena is a common protozoan in fresh water bodies and is green in colour due to
presence of chromatophores containing chlorophyll. Euglena is a spindle shaped individual having two flagellae in the anterior end arising from two basal granules
besides cytostome, cytopharynx, reservoir, contractile vacuole, stigma, paraflagellar
body etc. Almost in the middle of the body, there is a nucleus.
a. During binary fission, nucleus divides by mitosis.
b. Then the basal granules and chromatophores also divide.
c. A constriction appears in the anterior end, grow deep dividing the parent Euglena into two daughter Euglenae.
d. The basal granules and flagellae are retained by one daughter and the other acquires new flagellae from the newly formed basal granules.
e. Stigma, paraflagellar body and contractile vacuole of the parent disappear and new
structures are formed in both daughter Euglenae.
f. As the daughter Euglenae formed after longitudinal binary fission are like mirror
images, the binary fission in Euglena is also called symmetrogenic division.
Q: Write short notes on multiple fission.
A: Division of the parent individual into many daughter individuals is known as multiple fission. Generally, multiple fission takes place during unfavourable conditions. In multiple fission, nucleus of the parent individual divides many times by mitosis. Thus many nuclei are formed. Each nucleus is surrounded by a bit of cytoplasm and thus many small daughter individuals are formed. When the body covering of the parent ruptures, all the daughter individuals are liberated out and each one develops into a complete organism.
Eg: Multiple fission in Plasmodium is described as schizogony, male gametogony
and sporogony.
Multiple fission in Amoeba is known as sporulation.
Q: Draw neat labelled diagram of Euglena.
A:
Junior Inter Zoology - Important 4 Marks Questions for IPE Exams
Q: Draw labelled diagram of Paramecium.
A:
Q: Describe the process of transverse binary fission in Paramecium.
A: Transverse binary fission takes place in Paramecium during favourable conditions.
The division of nucleus during binary fission is known as karyokinesis and that of
cytoplasm is called cytokinesis.
Paramecium is commonly called slipper animalcule and is a common protozoan in fresh water bodies. It has an oral groove, cytostome and cytopharynx on the oral surface,
besides two contractile vacuoles (one in the anterior part and the other in the posterior part). There are two nuclei, viz., macronucleus (large, bean shaped, polyploid) and a micronucleus (small, round, diploid). Body is covered by pellicle, below which infra ciliary system and trichocysts are present. Cilia are present all over the body.
During binary fission, Paramecium stops feeding. Then micronucleus divides by mitosis and macronucleus by amitosis. Oral groove disappears. Now a constriction appears in the middle, grow deep and divides the parent Paramecium into two daughter Paramecia. The daughter formed from the anterior half of the parent is called proter and that is formed from the posterior part is called opisthe. Proter receives the cytostome and cytopharynx and anterior contractile vacuole of the parent. Opisthe receives the posterior contractile vacuole of the parent. Proter develops a new oral groove, and a contractile vacuole in the posterior part. Opisthe develops an oral groove, cytostome and cytopharynx, and a contractile vacuole in the posterior part.
Transverse binary fission in Paramecium is called homothetogenic fission because, the
plane of fission is at right angles to the long axis of the body. The fission is also called perikinetal fission because it occurs at right angles to the kineties.
If conditions are favourable, binary fission is completed in about two hours and
Paramecium can produce about four generations of daughter Paramecia in a day.
A:
Q: Describe the process of transverse binary fission in Paramecium.
A: Transverse binary fission takes place in Paramecium during favourable conditions.
The division of nucleus during binary fission is known as karyokinesis and that of
cytoplasm is called cytokinesis.
Paramecium is commonly called slipper animalcule and is a common protozoan in fresh water bodies. It has an oral groove, cytostome and cytopharynx on the oral surface,
besides two contractile vacuoles (one in the anterior part and the other in the posterior part). There are two nuclei, viz., macronucleus (large, bean shaped, polyploid) and a micronucleus (small, round, diploid). Body is covered by pellicle, below which infra ciliary system and trichocysts are present. Cilia are present all over the body.
During binary fission, Paramecium stops feeding. Then micronucleus divides by mitosis and macronucleus by amitosis. Oral groove disappears. Now a constriction appears in the middle, grow deep and divides the parent Paramecium into two daughter Paramecia. The daughter formed from the anterior half of the parent is called proter and that is formed from the posterior part is called opisthe. Proter receives the cytostome and cytopharynx and anterior contractile vacuole of the parent. Opisthe receives the posterior contractile vacuole of the parent. Proter develops a new oral groove, and a contractile vacuole in the posterior part. Opisthe develops an oral groove, cytostome and cytopharynx, and a contractile vacuole in the posterior part.
Transverse binary fission in Paramecium is called homothetogenic fission because, the
plane of fission is at right angles to the long axis of the body. The fission is also called perikinetal fission because it occurs at right angles to the kineties.
If conditions are favourable, binary fission is completed in about two hours and
Paramecium can produce about four generations of daughter Paramecia in a day.
Telangana SSC Board 10th Class Exams Time Table - March 2016
The Department of School Education, Government of Telangana will be releasing SSC / 10th Class Exams Time Table - March 2016. The exams are likely to be held from 21st March to 9th April 2016. About 5 lakhs students are going to appear for SSC / 10th class exams in Telangana. Following are the details of date wise exams:
March 21: First Language Paper 1
March 22: First Language Paper 2
March 24: Second Language
March 26: English Paper 1
March 28: English Paper 2
March 29: Mathematics Paper 1
March 30: Mathematics Paper 2
March 31: General Science Paper 1
April 1: General Science Paper 2
April 2: Social Studies Paper 1
April 4: Social Studies Paper 2
April 6: Oriental SSC Main Language Paper 1
April 7: Oriental SSC Main Language Paper 2
April 9: SSC Vocational Exam
The SSC / Tenth Class in Andhra Pradesh also starts on 21st March and end on 7th April 2016. The Telangana Government will issue the schedule officially on 3rd December 2015.
March 21: First Language Paper 1
March 22: First Language Paper 2
March 24: Second Language
March 26: English Paper 1
March 28: English Paper 2
March 29: Mathematics Paper 1
March 30: Mathematics Paper 2
March 31: General Science Paper 1
April 1: General Science Paper 2
April 2: Social Studies Paper 1
April 4: Social Studies Paper 2
April 6: Oriental SSC Main Language Paper 1
April 7: Oriental SSC Main Language Paper 2
April 9: SSC Vocational Exam
The SSC / Tenth Class in Andhra Pradesh also starts on 21st March and end on 7th April 2016. The Telangana Government will issue the schedule officially on 3rd December 2015.
Dravidian University DURCET 2015 Last Date Extended
Dravidian University (DU), Kuppam, Chittoor district (Andhra Pradesh) has informed that the last date for the submission of applications for DURCET 2015 (Dravidian University Research Common Entrance Test) has been extended till 5th December 2015.
The DURCET is being conducted for admission into M.Phil and Ph.D courses for the academic year 2015-16. The Ph.D and M.Phil courses are offered in 18 disciplines and there are 149 Ph.D seats and 147 M.Phil seats in DU.
The original last date for the applications submission is 30th December 2015. About 500 candidates have applied for the Ph.D and M.Phil till date. The interested candidates can now apply till 5th December 2015. For more details, see the website of the university.
The DURCET is being conducted for admission into M.Phil and Ph.D courses for the academic year 2015-16. The Ph.D and M.Phil courses are offered in 18 disciplines and there are 149 Ph.D seats and 147 M.Phil seats in DU.
The original last date for the applications submission is 30th December 2015. About 500 candidates have applied for the Ph.D and M.Phil till date. The interested candidates can now apply till 5th December 2015. For more details, see the website of the university.
Nasr School Admissions 2016-17 for Nursery and PP 1 for Girls and Boys
Nasr School, a part of Nasr Group of Institutions, Khairatabad (Hyderabad, Telangana) has issued admission notification for the academic year 2016-17 into various classes. Following are details of Nursery and PP 1 admissions in Nasr School.
1) Nasr School, Khairatabad: Admissions are open in Nursery for Girls and Boys and for Boys in PP 1.
2) Nasr Boys School, Gachibowli: Admissions are open for Class 1 onwards.
Application forms will be issued from 1st December 2015 at Nasr School, Khairatabad and at Nasr Boys School, Gachibowli from 9 AM to 12 Noon.
Last date for registrations is 6th January 2016. Phone No.: 040 - 23307555 / 23001248. Website: www.nasrschool.in
1) Nasr School, Khairatabad: Admissions are open in Nursery for Girls and Boys and for Boys in PP 1.
2) Nasr Boys School, Gachibowli: Admissions are open for Class 1 onwards.
Application forms will be issued from 1st December 2015 at Nasr School, Khairatabad and at Nasr Boys School, Gachibowli from 9 AM to 12 Noon.
Last date for registrations is 6th January 2016. Phone No.: 040 - 23307555 / 23001248. Website: www.nasrschool.in
Aadhaar Number Compusory for SSC Nominal Rolls in Telangana - 2015
The Sarya Siksha Abhiyan (SSA) has informed that Aadhaar number is compulsory for the registration of nominal rolls of SSC / 10th Class students in Telangana.
The Directorate of Examinations of Government of Telangana has fixed 1st December 2015 as the last date for sending nominal rolls. The Government has given the time till 15th December 2015 for all the students of Government aided and non aided schools.
The Government has also identified a separate agency to enroll students for Aadhaar number. The Government recognised schools association is opposing the move to link Aadhaar with nominal rolls.
The Association is requesting the authorities to complete the nominal rolls process initially and add Aadhaar number in due course of time.
The Directorate of Examinations of Government of Telangana has fixed 1st December 2015 as the last date for sending nominal rolls. The Government has given the time till 15th December 2015 for all the students of Government aided and non aided schools.
The Government has also identified a separate agency to enroll students for Aadhaar number. The Government recognised schools association is opposing the move to link Aadhaar with nominal rolls.
The Association is requesting the authorities to complete the nominal rolls process initially and add Aadhaar number in due course of time.
TSWREIS Telangana Intermediate Admissions 2016-17
Telangana Social Welfare Residential Educational Institutions Society (TSWREIS), Hyderabad has issued notification for admission into Intermediate Course (First Year) for the academic year 2016-17.
The institutions offering Intermediate course and integrated IIT JEE and CA - CPT coaching are as follows: TSWR (IIT - LTCD) Junior College, Gowlidoddi; TSWR Colleges of Excellence (Karimnagar) and 10 Magnet Colleges.
The groups offering in Intermediate are MPC, BPC, MEC and CEC. Candidates should be appearing for SSC / 10th class examinations in March 2016.
The selection of the candidates will be through entrance examination which will be conducted on 31st January 2016. Details of the notification, entrance exam and other information is available on the website www.tswreis.telangana.gov.in OR contact district coordinator point. Last date for the submission of online applications is 31 December 2015.
The institutions offering Intermediate course and integrated IIT JEE and CA - CPT coaching are as follows: TSWR (IIT - LTCD) Junior College, Gowlidoddi; TSWR Colleges of Excellence (Karimnagar) and 10 Magnet Colleges.
The groups offering in Intermediate are MPC, BPC, MEC and CEC. Candidates should be appearing for SSC / 10th class examinations in March 2016.
The selection of the candidates will be through entrance examination which will be conducted on 31st January 2016. Details of the notification, entrance exam and other information is available on the website www.tswreis.telangana.gov.in OR contact district coordinator point. Last date for the submission of online applications is 31 December 2015.
AP 10th Class Exams Schedule and Time Table - March 2016
The Department of School Education, Government of Andhra Pradesh has released 10th Class / SSC public examinations schedule with dates and subjects for March - 2016. Following is the detailed time table for AP - SSC exams 2016:
March 21, 22: First Language Paper I and Paper II
March 24: Second Language
March 26, 28: English Paper 1 and Paper II
March 29, 30: Maths Paper I and Paper II
March 31, April I: General Science Paper I and Paper II
April 2, 4: Social Studies Paper I and Paper II
April 6: OSSC Main Language Paper 2
April 7: SSC Vocational Course (Theory)
The SSC / Tenth / 10th Class exams schedule has been finalised by the AP Government considering the SSC schedule in Telangana as both the states are following same syllabus.
March 21, 22: First Language Paper I and Paper II
March 24: Second Language
March 26, 28: English Paper 1 and Paper II
March 29, 30: Maths Paper I and Paper II
March 31, April I: General Science Paper I and Paper II
April 2, 4: Social Studies Paper I and Paper II
April 6: OSSC Main Language Paper 2
April 7: SSC Vocational Course (Theory)
The SSC / Tenth / 10th Class exams schedule has been finalised by the AP Government considering the SSC schedule in Telangana as both the states are following same syllabus.
AP Senior Intermediate IPE Exams Schedule - March 2016
Here is the Senior Intermediate Examination Schedule - IPE March 2016 as released by BIEAP (Board of Intermediate Education, Government of Andhra Pradesh). This is the latest schedule for IPE Senior / Inter Second Year exams. About 6.1 lakhs students are going to appear for these examinations in March - 2016.
Also See: AP Junior Inter Exams Schedule 2016
IPE Junior / Inter Second Year Schedule - March 2016:
March 3: Second Language II
March 5: English II
March 9: Maths 2A, Botany, Civics, Psychology
March 11: Maths 2B, Zoology, History
March 14: Physics, Economics, Classical Language
March 16: Chemistry, Commerce, Sociology, Fine Arts, Music
March 18: Geology, Home Science, Public Administration, Logic, Bridge Course Maths (Only for BiPC students)
March 21: Modern Language 2, Geography
The BIEAP has changed the IPE schedule considering the Intermediate exam dates in Telangana state and JEE Main examinations.
Examination on Human Values will be held on 27th January and Environmental Education on 30th January 2016. The practical examinations will be conducted from 4th February to 24th February 2016.
Also See: AP Junior Inter Exams Schedule 2016
IPE Junior / Inter Second Year Schedule - March 2016:
March 3: Second Language II
March 5: English II
March 9: Maths 2A, Botany, Civics, Psychology
March 11: Maths 2B, Zoology, History
March 14: Physics, Economics, Classical Language
March 16: Chemistry, Commerce, Sociology, Fine Arts, Music
March 18: Geology, Home Science, Public Administration, Logic, Bridge Course Maths (Only for BiPC students)
March 21: Modern Language 2, Geography
The BIEAP has changed the IPE schedule considering the Intermediate exam dates in Telangana state and JEE Main examinations.
Examination on Human Values will be held on 27th January and Environmental Education on 30th January 2016. The practical examinations will be conducted from 4th February to 24th February 2016.
Andhra Pradesh Junior Inter IPE Exams Schedule - March 2016
Following is the Junior Intermediate Examination Schedule - IPE March 2016 for AP students as released by BIEAP (Board of Intermediate Education, Government of Andhra Pradesh). This is the latest schedule there may not be any changes.
Also Read: AP Senior Inter Exams Dates - March 2016
IPE Junior / Inter First Year Schedule - March 2016:
March 2: Language I
March 4: English I
March 8: Maths IA, Botany, Civics, Psychology
March 10: Maths IB, Zoology, History
March 12: Physics, Economics, Classical Language
March 15: Chemistry, Commerce, Sociology, Fine Arts, Music
March 17: Geology, Home Science, Public Administration, Logic, Bridge Course Maths (Only for BiPC students)
March 19: Modern Language I, Geography
The Government of Andhra Pradesh has changed the examination schedule considering the exam dates in Telangana and JEE Main examinations and giving more time to the students to prepare for entrance examinations.
Also Read: AP Senior Inter Exams Dates - March 2016
IPE Junior / Inter First Year Schedule - March 2016:
March 2: Language I
March 4: English I
March 8: Maths IA, Botany, Civics, Psychology
March 10: Maths IB, Zoology, History
March 12: Physics, Economics, Classical Language
March 15: Chemistry, Commerce, Sociology, Fine Arts, Music
March 17: Geology, Home Science, Public Administration, Logic, Bridge Course Maths (Only for BiPC students)
March 19: Modern Language I, Geography
The Government of Andhra Pradesh has changed the examination schedule considering the exam dates in Telangana and JEE Main examinations and giving more time to the students to prepare for entrance examinations.
Changes in AP Intermediate Exams Dates and Schedule - March 2016
The Board of Intermediate Education, Government of Andhra Pradesh has changed the Intermediate Examination schedule. The IPE exams will now starts from 2nd March instead of 11th March as announced earlier.
Junior Intermediate examinations will start from 2nd March and close on 19th March. Senior Intermediate examinations will commence from 3rd March and end on 21st March 2015.
The Practicals examinations will be held from 4th February to 24th February 2016. Jumbling system will be followes for practical examinations. The AP Government has also decided to conduct 10th Class / SSC examinations from 21st March to 7th April 2016.
Junior Intermediate examinations will start from 2nd March and close on 19th March. Senior Intermediate examinations will commence from 3rd March and end on 21st March 2015.
The Practicals examinations will be held from 4th February to 24th February 2016. Jumbling system will be followes for practical examinations. The AP Government has also decided to conduct 10th Class / SSC examinations from 21st March to 7th April 2016.
XLRI Management Campus in Kondapalli - Vijayawada in AP - 2015
Xavier Labour Research Institute (XLRI) - one of the best management institutions in the country is proposed to set up campus in Kondapalli, near Vijayawada in Andhra Pradesh. The campus / management school is likely to get approval from AP Government very soon.
The school will be set up in 150 acres with Rs. 300 crore investment. About 500 candidates will be admitted in the first phase in various programmes of the XLRI institute and will be extended to 1000 seats later.
The XLRI is known for high quality management education in India. Several CEOs and Presidents of companies have pursued their education from XLRI, Jamshedpur. The institute was set up by Society of Jesus.
The school will be set up in 150 acres with Rs. 300 crore investment. About 500 candidates will be admitted in the first phase in various programmes of the XLRI institute and will be extended to 1000 seats later.
The XLRI is known for high quality management education in India. Several CEOs and Presidents of companies have pursued their education from XLRI, Jamshedpur. The institute was set up by Society of Jesus.
Telangana Open School 10th Class and Intermediate Results - 2015
Telangana Open School Society (TSOSS) has released the results of 10th Class and Intermediate Annual Examinations conducted in October 2015. The results are available on the websites www.telanganaopenschool.org OR www.pratibhaplus.com .
About 18000 candidates were appeared for 10th class exams and 4644 (26.16 percent) candidates declared qualified. In Intermediate, about 20000 candidates have appeared for the exams and only 6482 candidates have qualified (32.67 percent).
Candidates who are interested in applying for revaluation, recounting and zerox copies of answer sheets can apply for the same between 1st to 10th December 2015.
Candidates can apply for revaluation through paying fee at AP Online, Mee Seva centers in the state of Telangana. For more details, see TS Open School website.
About 18000 candidates were appeared for 10th class exams and 4644 (26.16 percent) candidates declared qualified. In Intermediate, about 20000 candidates have appeared for the exams and only 6482 candidates have qualified (32.67 percent).
Candidates who are interested in applying for revaluation, recounting and zerox copies of answer sheets can apply for the same between 1st to 10th December 2015.
Candidates can apply for revaluation through paying fee at AP Online, Mee Seva centers in the state of Telangana. For more details, see TS Open School website.
CIPET Hyderabad - Short-term Certificate Course 2015
Central Institute of Plastics Engineers and Technology (CIPET), Hyderabad is inviting applications from eligible candidates for admissions into Short-term Certificate courses for the year - 2015.
Course details : Technology Based Entrepreneurship Development programme.
Eligibility : Applicants must have Degree / Diploma in Engineering / Technology / Science.
Age : Minimum 18 years and maximum 40 years.
Selection process : Through written test and personal interview.
Duly filled in application form along with attested copies of mark sheets should reach The Chief Manager (Project), CIPET, IDA Phase- II, Cherlapally, Hyderabad - 500 051. For any information see website : http://cipet.gov.in.
Last date for the receipt of filled in application form is 30th November, 2015. Written test and interview will be held on 3rd December, 2015. Duration of course - 7th December to 15th January, 2015.
Course details : Technology Based Entrepreneurship Development programme.
Eligibility : Applicants must have Degree / Diploma in Engineering / Technology / Science.
Age : Minimum 18 years and maximum 40 years.
Selection process : Through written test and personal interview.
Duly filled in application form along with attested copies of mark sheets should reach The Chief Manager (Project), CIPET, IDA Phase- II, Cherlapally, Hyderabad - 500 051. For any information see website : http://cipet.gov.in.
Last date for the receipt of filled in application form is 30th November, 2015. Written test and interview will be held on 3rd December, 2015. Duration of course - 7th December to 15th January, 2015.
JNTU Anantapur Ph.D in Sciences Admissions 2015-16
Jawaharlal Nehru Technological University (JNTU) Anantapur (Andhra Pradesh) has issued notification for admission into Full Time / Part Time Ph.D Programmes in Sciences for the academic year 2015-16.
The Ph.D is offered in Mathematics, Chemistry, Physics, Biotechnology and Food Technology. Candidates should have Post Graduate Degree or its equivalent in relevant discipline.
Interested candidates may download the relevant application forms from JNTUA website www.jntua.ac.in . Last date for the submission of filled in applications is 19th December 2015.
Selection of the candidates will be based on the performance in entrance test / personal interview or both. The entrance test will be conducted at JNTUA only. Candidates those qualified in UGC / CSIR NET / SLET / SET / GATE etc need not appear for entrance test and attend for the interviews on the specified date.
The Ph.D is offered in Mathematics, Chemistry, Physics, Biotechnology and Food Technology. Candidates should have Post Graduate Degree or its equivalent in relevant discipline.
Interested candidates may download the relevant application forms from JNTUA website www.jntua.ac.in . Last date for the submission of filled in applications is 19th December 2015.
Selection of the candidates will be based on the performance in entrance test / personal interview or both. The entrance test will be conducted at JNTUA only. Candidates those qualified in UGC / CSIR NET / SLET / SET / GATE etc need not appear for entrance test and attend for the interviews on the specified date.
Senior Intermediate Zoology 4 Marks Questions from Chapters 3 and 4
Q: Describe the structure of synovial joint with a neat labelled diagram.
A: i. A typical synovial joint is enclosed by a double layered synovial capsule. Outer layer of synovial capsule is continuous with periosteum and also contains ligaments. Inner layer is known as synovial membrane.
ii. Tips of bones that are enclosed by synovial capsule are covered by a layer of hyaline cartilage.
iii. The cavity enclosed by synovial capsule is known as synovial cavity and is filled with synovial fluid secreted by the synovial membrane.
iv. Synovial fluid acts as a lubricant and allows free movement of bones at the joint.
v. Synovial joints are movable joints.
Q: Give an account of retina of human eye.
A: a. Retina is also known as nervous tunic.
b. It is the inner layer of the eye ball. Its non visual part is formed by pigmented epithelium and visual part by neurons.
c. The neurons are arranged in three layers, namely, photoreceptor layer (rods and cones), bipolar layer and ganglion cell layer.
d. The centre of posterior part of retina is known as yellow spot and the depression present in the centre of yellow spot is known as fovea centralis. It is responsible for sharp and central vision.
e. All axons of ganglion cells exit the eye ball as optic nerve and it ends in the visual cortex of occipital lobe of brain.
f. The point where optic nerve exits the eye ball is known as blind spot (no vision part).
g. When light rays are focussed on retina, they generate impulses in rods and cones. Light induces the dissociation of photo pigments. As a result, action potentials develop in ganglion cells and are transmitted to the brain through the optic nerve, where the images are processed and the image is formed on retina.
Q: What is Cori cycle? Explain the process.
A: During rapid contractions, lactic acid is formed in the muscle. Major part of it is transported to the liver by blood, where it is converted into pyruvic acid and then glucose by gluconeogenesis. This glucose is again transported to the muscle by the blood for use of the muscle. These cyclical events between muscle and liver constitute Cori cycle.
A: i. A typical synovial joint is enclosed by a double layered synovial capsule. Outer layer of synovial capsule is continuous with periosteum and also contains ligaments. Inner layer is known as synovial membrane.
ii. Tips of bones that are enclosed by synovial capsule are covered by a layer of hyaline cartilage.
iii. The cavity enclosed by synovial capsule is known as synovial cavity and is filled with synovial fluid secreted by the synovial membrane.
iv. Synovial fluid acts as a lubricant and allows free movement of bones at the joint.
v. Synovial joints are movable joints.
Q: Give an account of retina of human eye.
A: a. Retina is also known as nervous tunic.
b. It is the inner layer of the eye ball. Its non visual part is formed by pigmented epithelium and visual part by neurons.
c. The neurons are arranged in three layers, namely, photoreceptor layer (rods and cones), bipolar layer and ganglion cell layer.
d. The centre of posterior part of retina is known as yellow spot and the depression present in the centre of yellow spot is known as fovea centralis. It is responsible for sharp and central vision.
e. All axons of ganglion cells exit the eye ball as optic nerve and it ends in the visual cortex of occipital lobe of brain.
f. The point where optic nerve exits the eye ball is known as blind spot (no vision part).
g. When light rays are focussed on retina, they generate impulses in rods and cones. Light induces the dissociation of photo pigments. As a result, action potentials develop in ganglion cells and are transmitted to the brain through the optic nerve, where the images are processed and the image is formed on retina.
Q: What is Cori cycle? Explain the process.
A: During rapid contractions, lactic acid is formed in the muscle. Major part of it is transported to the liver by blood, where it is converted into pyruvic acid and then glucose by gluconeogenesis. This glucose is again transported to the muscle by the blood for use of the muscle. These cyclical events between muscle and liver constitute Cori cycle.
Senior Inter Zoology 2 Marks Important Questions - Chapters 3 and 4
Q: What is triad system?
A: In mammals, sarcolemma of muscle fibre invaginates into sarcoplasm at the A-I junctions and form T - tubules. Each T - tubule is flanked on either side by cisternae of the sarcoplasmic reticulum. T - tubule and the cisternae on its sides form the triad system.
Q: Distinguish between red muscle fibres and white muscle fibres.
A: a. Muscle fibres of some muscles contain large amounts of myoglobin (to store much oxygen) and thus they are red in colour. Such muscle fibres are called red muscle fibres. They have large number of mitochondria to produce more energy (ATP). Red muscles are also called aerobic muscles.
b. Muscle fibres of some muscles contain little amounts of myoglobin and thus they are pale in colour. Such muscle fibres are called white muscle fibres. They have less number of mitochondria. White muscles are also called anaerobic muscles.
Q: Name the key stone bone in cranium and where it is located?
A: a. As the sphenoid bone articulates with all bones of cranium, it is called keystone bone of cranium.
b. Sphenoid is located at the middle part of the base of skull.
Q: Name the type of joints between:
a. Atlanto- axial joint
b. Femur-acetabular joint
A: a. Pivot joint
b. Ball and socket joint.
Q: Name the meninges covering the brain of man.
A: a. Outer duramater
b. Middle arachnoid mater
c. Inner piamater
Q: What is corpus callosum?
A: Corpus callosum is a wide and flat bundle of myelenated nerve fibres beneath the cortex connecting the two cerebral hemispheres in the brain of human beings.
A: In mammals, sarcolemma of muscle fibre invaginates into sarcoplasm at the A-I junctions and form T - tubules. Each T - tubule is flanked on either side by cisternae of the sarcoplasmic reticulum. T - tubule and the cisternae on its sides form the triad system.
Q: Distinguish between red muscle fibres and white muscle fibres.
A: a. Muscle fibres of some muscles contain large amounts of myoglobin (to store much oxygen) and thus they are red in colour. Such muscle fibres are called red muscle fibres. They have large number of mitochondria to produce more energy (ATP). Red muscles are also called aerobic muscles.
b. Muscle fibres of some muscles contain little amounts of myoglobin and thus they are pale in colour. Such muscle fibres are called white muscle fibres. They have less number of mitochondria. White muscles are also called anaerobic muscles.
Q: Name the key stone bone in cranium and where it is located?
A: a. As the sphenoid bone articulates with all bones of cranium, it is called keystone bone of cranium.
b. Sphenoid is located at the middle part of the base of skull.
Q: Name the type of joints between:
a. Atlanto- axial joint
b. Femur-acetabular joint
A: a. Pivot joint
b. Ball and socket joint.
Q: Name the meninges covering the brain of man.
A: a. Outer duramater
b. Middle arachnoid mater
c. Inner piamater
Q: What is corpus callosum?
A: Corpus callosum is a wide and flat bundle of myelenated nerve fibres beneath the cortex connecting the two cerebral hemispheres in the brain of human beings.
Senior Intermediate Zoology Important Questions - 8 Marks
Q: Give a brief account of the structure and functions of human brain. (8 Marks)
A: Human brain is lodged and protected in a bony box in the skull called cranium. Brian is covered by three membranes
called meninges, namely, outer duramater (double layered), middle arachnoid mater and inner piamater (attached to
outer surface of the brain). Duramater and arachnoid mater are separated by subdural space and arachnoid mater and piamater are separated by sub arachnoid space. Subdural space is filled with cerebro spinal fluid (colourless and alkaline). It acts as a shock absorbing medium.
Brain is divisible into three parts, namely, fore brain (procencephalon), mid brain (mesencephalon) and hind brain
(rhombencephalon).
A. Procencephalon: It is the largest and the anterior part of the brain and it consists of olfactory bulbs, cerebrum and diencephalon.
Olfactory bulbs: In the anterior part of the brain, is a pair of olfactory bulbs. They receive the sensory impulses of the smell from Olfactory epithelium.
Cerebrum: It is the largest part of the brain and is divided into two cerebral hemispheres (left and right) by a deep and longitudinal fissure. Beneath the cortex, left and right cerebral hemispheres are connected by transversely arranged bundle of myelenated nerve fibres called corpus callosum. The outer part of the cerebrum is formed by grey matter called cortex and inner part by white matter. Cortex contains nerve cell bodies. Cerebral cortex contains
many folds (gyri) among which, fissures (deep grooves) and sulci (shallow grooves) are present.
Cortex has three functional areas:
i. Sensory areas: receive and interpret sensory impulses.
ii. Motor areas: control voluntary muscular movements.
iii. Association areas: deals with integrative functions (such as memory and communications).
Each cerebral hemisphere is divided into four lobes, namely, frontal lobe, parietal lobe, temporal lobe and occipital lobe.
Diencephalon or thalamencephalon: It has an epithalamus, thalamus and hypothalamus.
i. Epithalamus is non nervous. It is fused with the piamater and forms the anterior choroid plexus. Behind the anterior choroid plexus, is a pineal stalk, which bears a pineal body at the tip.
ii. Thalamus acts as a coordinating centre for sensory and motor signaling.
iii. Hypothalamus ventrally has a hollow outgrowth called infundibulum. It bears the pituitary gland. Infundibulum contains several neurosecretary cells. Hypothalamus acts as and osmoregulatory, thermo regulatory, hunger, thirst and satiety centre.
The amygdala, hippocampus (deep structure of cerebral hemispheres) and inner parts of cerebral hemispheres form the limbic system. Along with hypothalamus, the limbic system is involved in sexual behaviour and emotions.
B. Mesencephalon: It lies beneath the thalamus and pons varoli. Ventrally, it contains pair of longitudinal bands of nervous tissue called crura cerebri. Connect the fore brain and the hind brain. Dorsally, mid brain has two pairs of spherical lobes called corpora quadrigemina (four optic lobes). The anterior pair is called superior colliculi (concerned with vision) and the posterior pair is called inferior colliculi (concerned with hearing).
C. Rhombencephalon: It is formed by cerebellum, pons and medulla oblongata.
i) Cerebellum: It is the second largest part of the brain and is composed of a median vermis and two lateral cerebellar lobes. Each cerebellar lobe contains an anterior and a posterior floccular lobe. The inner white
matter of cerebellum spreads like branching tree. Hence it is called arbor vitae. Cerebellum (little brain or gyroscope of the body) control and coordinate locomotor movements and maintains equilibrium. (damage to cerebellum results in ataxia).
ii) Pons varoli: Beneath the mid brain, just in front of cerebellum and above the medulla oblongata, pons varoli is present. It is in the form of a transverse bridge connecting the two cerebellar lobes. It acts as a relay centre
between cerebellum, spinal cord and the remaining part of brain. It contains a pneumotaxic centre (controls the respiratory muscles).
iii) Medulla oblongata: It is the posterior part of the brain and is continued as spinal cord. Its roof is thin, vascular and is known as the posterior choroid plexus. Medulla oblongata contains cardio vascular and respiratory centres and the centres of swallowing, cough, vomiting, sneezing, hiccupping etc.
Mid brain, pons varoli and medulla oblongata together form the brain stem.
Cavities of brain: Cavities of brain are known as ventricles. The cavities of right and left cerebral hemispheres are known as 1st and 2nd ventricles respectively. They are also known as lateral ventricles or paracoels. Diencephalon third ventricle or diacoel and medulla oblongata contains the fourth ventricle or myelocoel. The two lateral ventricles open into the diacoel through separate openings called foramina of Manro. Diacoel and myelocoel are connected by a narrow tube called iter or ductur Sylvius. Fourth ventricle is continuous with central canal of the spinal cord. All the ventricles are filled with cerebrospinal fluid. It was flushed four times in a day to
remove metabolites and toxins.
A: Human brain is lodged and protected in a bony box in the skull called cranium. Brian is covered by three membranes
called meninges, namely, outer duramater (double layered), middle arachnoid mater and inner piamater (attached to
outer surface of the brain). Duramater and arachnoid mater are separated by subdural space and arachnoid mater and piamater are separated by sub arachnoid space. Subdural space is filled with cerebro spinal fluid (colourless and alkaline). It acts as a shock absorbing medium.
Brain is divisible into three parts, namely, fore brain (procencephalon), mid brain (mesencephalon) and hind brain
(rhombencephalon).
A. Procencephalon: It is the largest and the anterior part of the brain and it consists of olfactory bulbs, cerebrum and diencephalon.
Olfactory bulbs: In the anterior part of the brain, is a pair of olfactory bulbs. They receive the sensory impulses of the smell from Olfactory epithelium.
Cerebrum: It is the largest part of the brain and is divided into two cerebral hemispheres (left and right) by a deep and longitudinal fissure. Beneath the cortex, left and right cerebral hemispheres are connected by transversely arranged bundle of myelenated nerve fibres called corpus callosum. The outer part of the cerebrum is formed by grey matter called cortex and inner part by white matter. Cortex contains nerve cell bodies. Cerebral cortex contains
many folds (gyri) among which, fissures (deep grooves) and sulci (shallow grooves) are present.
Cortex has three functional areas:
i. Sensory areas: receive and interpret sensory impulses.
ii. Motor areas: control voluntary muscular movements.
iii. Association areas: deals with integrative functions (such as memory and communications).
Each cerebral hemisphere is divided into four lobes, namely, frontal lobe, parietal lobe, temporal lobe and occipital lobe.
Diencephalon or thalamencephalon: It has an epithalamus, thalamus and hypothalamus.
i. Epithalamus is non nervous. It is fused with the piamater and forms the anterior choroid plexus. Behind the anterior choroid plexus, is a pineal stalk, which bears a pineal body at the tip.
ii. Thalamus acts as a coordinating centre for sensory and motor signaling.
iii. Hypothalamus ventrally has a hollow outgrowth called infundibulum. It bears the pituitary gland. Infundibulum contains several neurosecretary cells. Hypothalamus acts as and osmoregulatory, thermo regulatory, hunger, thirst and satiety centre.
The amygdala, hippocampus (deep structure of cerebral hemispheres) and inner parts of cerebral hemispheres form the limbic system. Along with hypothalamus, the limbic system is involved in sexual behaviour and emotions.
B. Mesencephalon: It lies beneath the thalamus and pons varoli. Ventrally, it contains pair of longitudinal bands of nervous tissue called crura cerebri. Connect the fore brain and the hind brain. Dorsally, mid brain has two pairs of spherical lobes called corpora quadrigemina (four optic lobes). The anterior pair is called superior colliculi (concerned with vision) and the posterior pair is called inferior colliculi (concerned with hearing).
C. Rhombencephalon: It is formed by cerebellum, pons and medulla oblongata.
i) Cerebellum: It is the second largest part of the brain and is composed of a median vermis and two lateral cerebellar lobes. Each cerebellar lobe contains an anterior and a posterior floccular lobe. The inner white
matter of cerebellum spreads like branching tree. Hence it is called arbor vitae. Cerebellum (little brain or gyroscope of the body) control and coordinate locomotor movements and maintains equilibrium. (damage to cerebellum results in ataxia).
ii) Pons varoli: Beneath the mid brain, just in front of cerebellum and above the medulla oblongata, pons varoli is present. It is in the form of a transverse bridge connecting the two cerebellar lobes. It acts as a relay centre
between cerebellum, spinal cord and the remaining part of brain. It contains a pneumotaxic centre (controls the respiratory muscles).
iii) Medulla oblongata: It is the posterior part of the brain and is continued as spinal cord. Its roof is thin, vascular and is known as the posterior choroid plexus. Medulla oblongata contains cardio vascular and respiratory centres and the centres of swallowing, cough, vomiting, sneezing, hiccupping etc.
Mid brain, pons varoli and medulla oblongata together form the brain stem.
Cavities of brain: Cavities of brain are known as ventricles. The cavities of right and left cerebral hemispheres are known as 1st and 2nd ventricles respectively. They are also known as lateral ventricles or paracoels. Diencephalon third ventricle or diacoel and medulla oblongata contains the fourth ventricle or myelocoel. The two lateral ventricles open into the diacoel through separate openings called foramina of Manro. Diacoel and myelocoel are connected by a narrow tube called iter or ductur Sylvius. Fourth ventricle is continuous with central canal of the spinal cord. All the ventricles are filled with cerebrospinal fluid. It was flushed four times in a day to
remove metabolites and toxins.
Telangana SSC Nominal Rolls and Fee Challan Form Download - March 2016
The Department of School Education, the Government of Telangana has informed that the challan and nominal roll forms can be downloaded from the website of BSE Telangana at www.bsetelangana.org . The ICR cum OMR forms data also can be released from 24th November 2015 to 2nd December 2015 from the website.
The head masters of the schools in Telangana are informed to download the forms from the website and upload the data till 2nd December 2015. The same nominal roll form can be used for both regular and private candidates.
The Department of School Education, Government of Telangana has not fixed the SSC exams schedule till date. It is proposed to conduct the exams from 21st March 2016. All the reserved category candidates have to submit the income certificate from concerned authorities.
The head masters of the schools in Telangana are informed to download the forms from the website and upload the data till 2nd December 2015. The same nominal roll form can be used for both regular and private candidates.
The Department of School Education, Government of Telangana has not fixed the SSC exams schedule till date. It is proposed to conduct the exams from 21st March 2016. All the reserved category candidates have to submit the income certificate from concerned authorities.
Telangana SSC - 10th Class Exams from 21st March 2016
The Government of Telangana has tentatively proposed to conduct SSC / 10th Class examinations from 21st March 2016. The SSC annual examinations in Telangana state are likely to commence from either 21st or 24th or 28th March 2016.
The Department of School Education is in favour of conducting SSC exams from 21st March 2016. The Intermediate examinations will end on 21st March with Modern Language and Geography.
The School Education department is proposed to start SSC exams from 21st March as the number of students of Inter exams on this date will be less.
The SSC public examinations will continue till 7th or 8th April 2016. The detailed schedule will be released by the Department of School Education, Government of Telangana very soon.
The Department of School Education is in favour of conducting SSC exams from 21st March 2016. The Intermediate examinations will end on 21st March with Modern Language and Geography.
The School Education department is proposed to start SSC exams from 21st March as the number of students of Inter exams on this date will be less.
The SSC public examinations will continue till 7th or 8th April 2016. The detailed schedule will be released by the Department of School Education, Government of Telangana very soon.
Telangana Senior Inter Exams Schedule - IPE March 2016
Board of Intermediate Education, Government of Telangana (BIETS), Hyderabad has released Senior Intermediate Examination Schedule - March 2016 for the academic year 2015-16. The Senior IPE exams in Telangana state will start from 5th March 2016 and end on 21st March 2016.
Following is the examination schedule for Senior Inter of Telangana Board:
March 5: English Paper 2
March 9: Maths Paper 2A, Botany Paper 2, Civics Paper 2, Psychology Paper 2
March 11: Maths Paper 2B, Zoology Paper 2, History Paper 2
March 14: Physics Paper 2B, Economics Paper 2, Classical Language Paper 2
March 16: Chemistry Paper 2, Commerce Paper 2, Sociology Paper 2, Fine Arts and Music Paper 2
March 18: Geology Paper 2, Home Science Paper 2, Public Administration Paper 2, Logic Paper 2, Bridge Course Maths Paper 2 (for MPC students)
21 March: Modern Language Paper 2, Geography Paper 2.
Practical examinations for Senior Inter / Second Year Intermediate students will be held from 3rd February to 24th February 2016. The regular examination timings are 9 AM to 12 Noon.
Following is the examination schedule for Senior Inter of Telangana Board:
March 5: English Paper 2
March 9: Maths Paper 2A, Botany Paper 2, Civics Paper 2, Psychology Paper 2
March 11: Maths Paper 2B, Zoology Paper 2, History Paper 2
March 14: Physics Paper 2B, Economics Paper 2, Classical Language Paper 2
March 16: Chemistry Paper 2, Commerce Paper 2, Sociology Paper 2, Fine Arts and Music Paper 2
March 18: Geology Paper 2, Home Science Paper 2, Public Administration Paper 2, Logic Paper 2, Bridge Course Maths Paper 2 (for MPC students)
21 March: Modern Language Paper 2, Geography Paper 2.
Practical examinations for Senior Inter / Second Year Intermediate students will be held from 3rd February to 24th February 2016. The regular examination timings are 9 AM to 12 Noon.
Telangana Junior Intermediate Exams Schedule - IPE March 2016
Board of Intermediate Education, Government of Telangana (BIETS), Hyderabad has announced Intermediate Examination Schedule for the academic year 2015-16. The IPE exams in Telangana state will start from 2nd March 2016 and end on 21st March 2016.
Following is the examination schedule:
Inter First Year Exams Schedule:
March 2: Second Language I
March 4: English Paper I
March 8: Maths Paper 1A, Botany Paper I, Civics Paper I, Psychology Paper I
March 10: Maths Paper 1B, Zoology Paper I, History Paper I
March 12: Physics Paper 1B, Economics Paper I, Classical Language Paper I
March 15: Chemistry Paper I, Commerce Paper I, Sociology Paper I, Fine Arts and Music Paper I
March 17: Geology Paper I, Home Science Paper I, Public Administration Paper I, Logic Paper I, Bridge Course Maths Paper I (for MPC students)
19 March: Modern Language Paper I, Geography Paper I.
Ethics and Human values examination for first year students will be conducted on January 28th and Environmental Education exam will be held on 30th January 2016.
Following is the examination schedule:
Inter First Year Exams Schedule:
March 2: Second Language I
March 4: English Paper I
March 8: Maths Paper 1A, Botany Paper I, Civics Paper I, Psychology Paper I
March 10: Maths Paper 1B, Zoology Paper I, History Paper I
March 12: Physics Paper 1B, Economics Paper I, Classical Language Paper I
March 15: Chemistry Paper I, Commerce Paper I, Sociology Paper I, Fine Arts and Music Paper I
March 17: Geology Paper I, Home Science Paper I, Public Administration Paper I, Logic Paper I, Bridge Course Maths Paper I (for MPC students)
19 March: Modern Language Paper I, Geography Paper I.
Ethics and Human values examination for first year students will be conducted on January 28th and Environmental Education exam will be held on 30th January 2016.
Rockwell International School Hyderabad Admissions 2016-17
Rockwell International School, Hyderabad (Kokapet and Jubilee Hills Campuses) has issued admission notification for the academic year 2016-17. The school is affiliated to CBSE - New Delhi till Class XII.
Campus wise admissions: In Kokapet campus, Nursery to Class XI admissions and in Jubilee Hills campus, Nursery to Grade III admissions are open.
The school follows CBSE curriculum. For details of registrations, fee and facilities, contact at Rockwell International School, Plot No. 727, Road No . 36, Jubilee Hills, Hyderabad. Kokapet campus: Gandipet Main Road, Kokapet.
Campus wise admissions: In Kokapet campus, Nursery to Class XI admissions and in Jubilee Hills campus, Nursery to Grade III admissions are open.
The school follows CBSE curriculum. For details of registrations, fee and facilities, contact at Rockwell International School, Plot No. 727, Road No . 36, Jubilee Hills, Hyderabad. Kokapet campus: Gandipet Main Road, Kokapet.
Open Minds - A Birla School Hyderabad Admissions 2016-17
Open Minds - A Birla School in Kollur of Medak District, Telangana has issued admission notification for the academic year 2016-17. The admissions are open for grades 1 to 10 in the school.
The school has spacious class rooms, integrated labs for computers, science, maths and good sports facilities for tennis, football, skating etc. The details of admissions, contact at the following address:
Address: Open Minds - A Birla School, Survey No. 192, Kollur, Medak district. For more details, call 08499993928 / 040 - 30878889.
The school has spacious class rooms, integrated labs for computers, science, maths and good sports facilities for tennis, football, skating etc. The details of admissions, contact at the following address:
Address: Open Minds - A Birla School, Survey No. 192, Kollur, Medak district. For more details, call 08499993928 / 040 - 30878889.
Subscribe to:
Comments (Atom)