Nizams Institute of Medical Sciences (NIMS) has issued notification
inviting applications from eligible candidates of Telangana and Andhra
Pradesh States for admission into MD/ MS post graduate medical
specialty courses for the academic year 2016-17.
MD (Anaesthesiology): 7 Seats
MD (Bio-Chemistry): 4 Seats
MD (General Medicine): 4 Seats
MD (Hospital Administration): 3 Seats
MS (Orthopaedics): 6 Seats
MD (Pathology): 5 Seats
MD (Radiotherapy): 3 Seats
Course Duration: 3 years.
Qualification: MBBS.
Method of Selection: Selection of the candidates will be made based on
the performance of the candidates at the Common Entrance Test
NIMSET-BS - 2016.
Application form needs to be filled and submitted online. Last date
for submission of application is 18 January 2016. Date of entrance
examination is 6 March 2016.
Gitam Admission Test GAT 2016 for Engineering and Pharmacy Admissions
Computer Based Online Test will be conducted by GITAM University
Visakhapatnam for admission to Engineering, Architecture and Pharmacy
Programs for the academic year 2016 - 17 for its Bengaluru, Hyderabad
and Visakhapatnam Campuses.
Programmes offered:
4 Year B.Tech. Programs
6 Year Dual Degree Programs (B.Tech. + M.Tech.)
5 Year Bachelor of Architecture
4 Year B.Pharmacy
2 Year M.Tech.
2 Year M.Pharmacy
Eligibility: Candidates should have passed in Intermediate or 10+2
examination with a minimum of 60 percent aggregate marks (50 percent
aggregate marks for B.Arch./ B.Pharm) in Maths, Physics and Chemistry.
Candidates with Maths/ Biology, Physics and Chemistry subjects are
eligible for B.Tech. Biotechnology and B.Pharmacy. Candidates seeking
admission to B.Arch. program should qualify in NATA/ JEE (Main).
Candidates can apply online at GITAM University website.
Last date for the receipt of applications: 2 April 2016.
Online admission Test commences from: 19 April 2016 to 8 May 2016.
Visakhapatnam for admission to Engineering, Architecture and Pharmacy
Programs for the academic year 2016 - 17 for its Bengaluru, Hyderabad
and Visakhapatnam Campuses.
Programmes offered:
4 Year B.Tech. Programs
6 Year Dual Degree Programs (B.Tech. + M.Tech.)
5 Year Bachelor of Architecture
4 Year B.Pharmacy
2 Year M.Tech.
2 Year M.Pharmacy
Eligibility: Candidates should have passed in Intermediate or 10+2
examination with a minimum of 60 percent aggregate marks (50 percent
aggregate marks for B.Arch./ B.Pharm) in Maths, Physics and Chemistry.
Candidates with Maths/ Biology, Physics and Chemistry subjects are
eligible for B.Tech. Biotechnology and B.Pharmacy. Candidates seeking
admission to B.Arch. program should qualify in NATA/ JEE (Main).
Candidates can apply online at GITAM University website.
Last date for the receipt of applications: 2 April 2016.
Online admission Test commences from: 19 April 2016 to 8 May 2016.
NTR University PGMET 2016 and MDSET 2016 Notifications
NTR University of Health Sciences, Vijayawada has issued notification
inviting application forms through online for admission into PG
medical courses for the academic year 2016-17.
Computer Based (Online) Entrance Test for admission into Post Graduate
Medical (MD/ MS/ Diploma) and MDS Degree Courses for the academic year
2016-17 for the seats under Competent Authority quota in the Colleges
affiliated to NTR University of Health Sciences, AP will be conducted
as per the dates given below.
Last date for the submission of applications: 20 January 2016.
Address: The Convener, Post Graduate Admissions Committee, Dr. NTR
University of Health Sciences, A.P., Vijayawada.
Date and Time of Computer based (Online) Entrance Test:
PG Medical Courses (MD/ MS/ Diploma): 28 February 2016.
MDS Degree Courses: 6 March 2016.
inviting application forms through online for admission into PG
medical courses for the academic year 2016-17.
Computer Based (Online) Entrance Test for admission into Post Graduate
Medical (MD/ MS/ Diploma) and MDS Degree Courses for the academic year
2016-17 for the seats under Competent Authority quota in the Colleges
affiliated to NTR University of Health Sciences, AP will be conducted
as per the dates given below.
Last date for the submission of applications: 20 January 2016.
Address: The Convener, Post Graduate Admissions Committee, Dr. NTR
University of Health Sciences, A.P., Vijayawada.
Date and Time of Computer based (Online) Entrance Test:
PG Medical Courses (MD/ MS/ Diploma): 28 February 2016.
MDS Degree Courses: 6 March 2016.
AP Polycet 2016 on 27th April - Results on 9th May 2016
The Government of Andhra Pradesh has announced schedule for AP Polycet - 2016 for admission into polytechnic courses for the academic year 2016-17. The department of technical education of Government of AP is making arrangements to conduct the AP Polycet - 2016.
The AP - POLYCET 2016 will be held on 27th April 2016. The results of the entrance examination will be released on 9th May 2016.
Admission into various streams of polytechnic course in Government and private polytechnic colleges will be based on the merit in AP Polycet and reservations.
There will be online counseling for the AP Polycet 2016 qualified candidates. The details with notification will be released in February / March 2016 by the department of technical education, Government of AP.
The AP - POLYCET 2016 will be held on 27th April 2016. The results of the entrance examination will be released on 9th May 2016.
Admission into various streams of polytechnic course in Government and private polytechnic colleges will be based on the merit in AP Polycet and reservations.
There will be online counseling for the AP Polycet 2016 qualified candidates. The details with notification will be released in February / March 2016 by the department of technical education, Government of AP.
BRAOU Entrance Test for B.Ed and B.Ed Special Education Admissions - 2016
Dr BR Ambedkar Open University (BRAOU) has issued recruitment notification inviting applications for admission into B.Ed and B.Ed (Special Education) programmes through Entrance Test for the academic year 2016-17.
B.Ed: Duration is 2 years and course is offered in Telugu medium.
Eligibility: Candidates should have passed any degree with at least 50 percent marks. Degree can be in B.A./ B.Sc./ B.Com./ B.C.A./ B.Sc. (Home Science)/ BBM and/ or the Masters Degree in Commerce/ Social Sciences/ Humanities/ Sciences.
B.Ed. (Special Education): Duration of the course is 2 1/2 years. Medium is English and Telugu.
Eligibility: Candidates need at least 50 percent marks either in the Bachelors Degree and/ or in the Masters Degree in Sciences/ Social Sciences/ Humanities/ Commerce.
Last date for registrations: 30 January 2016.
Date of Entrance Test: 14 February 2016.
B.Ed: Duration is 2 years and course is offered in Telugu medium.
Eligibility: Candidates should have passed any degree with at least 50 percent marks. Degree can be in B.A./ B.Sc./ B.Com./ B.C.A./ B.Sc. (Home Science)/ BBM and/ or the Masters Degree in Commerce/ Social Sciences/ Humanities/ Sciences.
B.Ed. (Special Education): Duration of the course is 2 1/2 years. Medium is English and Telugu.
Eligibility: Candidates need at least 50 percent marks either in the Bachelors Degree and/ or in the Masters Degree in Sciences/ Social Sciences/ Humanities/ Commerce.
Last date for registrations: 30 January 2016.
Date of Entrance Test: 14 February 2016.
University of Hyderabad Ph.D Admissions 2016-17
University of Hyderabad, a Central University at Hyderabad has issued Ph.D admission notification for the academic year 2016-17. The course duration is 4 years. Following are details of disciplines, selection and application process:
Disciplines: Applied Mathematics, Statistics, Physics, Chemistry, Biochemistry, Plant Science, Animal Sciences, Biotechnology, Philosophy, Applied Linguistics, Transnational Studies, Science and Technology and Society Studies, Medical Science, Earth and Space Science, Gender Studies.
Candidates should have Masters degree in concerned discipline / subject. Selection of the candidates will be based on the performance in written exam and personal interviews.
Application forms cane be downloaded from the website www.uohyd.ac.in. Last date for the submission of filled in applications is 15 January 2016. Address: The Joint Registrar (Acad & Exam), University of Hyderabad, Prof CR Rao Road, Gachibowli, Hyderabad- 500 046.
Disciplines: Applied Mathematics, Statistics, Physics, Chemistry, Biochemistry, Plant Science, Animal Sciences, Biotechnology, Philosophy, Applied Linguistics, Transnational Studies, Science and Technology and Society Studies, Medical Science, Earth and Space Science, Gender Studies.
Candidates should have Masters degree in concerned discipline / subject. Selection of the candidates will be based on the performance in written exam and personal interviews.
Application forms cane be downloaded from the website www.uohyd.ac.in. Last date for the submission of filled in applications is 15 January 2016. Address: The Joint Registrar (Acad & Exam), University of Hyderabad, Prof CR Rao Road, Gachibowli, Hyderabad- 500 046.
International School Shaikpet - Hyderabad Admissions 2016-17
International School, a division of International Educational Society has issued notification for admission into Nursery to Class IV for the academic year 2016-17. The academic year starts from 2nd March 2016.
The International School follows ICSE Curriculum. The school is founded by Dr Kakarla Subba Rao. Application forms and prospectus are available at School premises between 9 AM 0 3 PM on all working days.
Address of the school: International School, 8-1-300/1, Shaikpet (Near Tolichowki), Hyderabad - 500008. Phone: 2356 1086 / 2356 0983.
Email: international_school@rediffmail.com
Website: www.internationalschooliea.com
The International School follows ICSE Curriculum. The school is founded by Dr Kakarla Subba Rao. Application forms and prospectus are available at School premises between 9 AM 0 3 PM on all working days.
Address of the school: International School, 8-1-300/1, Shaikpet (Near Tolichowki), Hyderabad - 500008. Phone: 2356 1086 / 2356 0983.
Email: international_school@rediffmail.com
Website: www.internationalschooliea.com
Andhra Pradesh Model Schools 6th Class Admissions 2106-17
Andhra Pradesh Model Schools have announced notification for admission into 6th class for the academic year 2016-17. Applications are invited in the prescribed format through online only.
Students should have studied in recognised schools during 2014-15 and 2015-16. They should have been promoted from 5th class to 6th class from concerned school for the year 2016-17. There are 155 model schools in AP.
Entrance examination will be conducted on 10th April 2016. Online applications can be submitted till 30th January 2016. Fee can be paid through AP online or mee seva centers.
Entrance examination will be in objective multiple choice type. Admissions will be through merit in entrance examination and rule of reservations.
Students should have studied in recognised schools during 2014-15 and 2015-16. They should have been promoted from 5th class to 6th class from concerned school for the year 2016-17. There are 155 model schools in AP.
Entrance examination will be conducted on 10th April 2016. Online applications can be submitted till 30th January 2016. Fee can be paid through AP online or mee seva centers.
Entrance examination will be in objective multiple choice type. Admissions will be through merit in entrance examination and rule of reservations.
New Central Universities and Institutions in Andhra Pradesh - 2016
The Central Government is in the process of establishing various central universities / institutes of national importance in the state of Andhra Pradesh. The Government of AP has to allot lands and its share of funds for these institutions to set up campuses.
1) IIT Tirupati
2) IISER Tirupati
3) IIM Visakhapatnam
4) NIT Tadepalligudem
5) IIIT Kurnool
6) Tribal University
7) Central University
8) Agricultural University
9) Petroleum University
10) Disaster Management University
11) AIIMS Mangalagiri
Most of these universities / institutions will come up with the financial assistance by Central Government. Government of AP has to allot sufficient land and other resources as its part.
1) IIT Tirupati
2) IISER Tirupati
3) IIM Visakhapatnam
4) NIT Tadepalligudem
5) IIIT Kurnool
6) Tribal University
7) Central University
8) Agricultural University
9) Petroleum University
10) Disaster Management University
11) AIIMS Mangalagiri
Most of these universities / institutions will come up with the financial assistance by Central Government. Government of AP has to allot sufficient land and other resources as its part.
New Universities in Andhra Pradesh in 2016 - XLRI, Amritha, GMR, SRM, SAARC Universities
The Government of Andhra Pradesh has approved several universities in the private management category. The government has confirmed the establishment of following private universities / educational institutions in the country.
1) Fisheries Universities
2) XLRI
3) Esha Leadership Academy
4) Law Academy
5) Amritha Viswavidyalayam
6) KRIDA (Sports department)
7) Logistics University
8) Tourism and Hospitality University (Tourism department)
9) Energy Institute
10) Telugu University (Education department)
11) TERI - Energy Resources - AP
12) Urdu University
13) YVR (Yalamanchili Infra Limited)
14) Web City (Virtual Academy - Higher Education Department)
15) Open University
16) GMR University
17) Natural History Park
18) Museum (Planning Department)
19) SRM University
20) Softbank
21) IIM (A) - SAARC University
22) Esha Yoga and Meditation Center
23) CII Knowledge Economy Zone
The Government of Andhra Pradesh has to allot the lands for these universities / institutions to set up campuses in various locations of the state.
1) Fisheries Universities
2) XLRI
3) Esha Leadership Academy
4) Law Academy
5) Amritha Viswavidyalayam
6) KRIDA (Sports department)
7) Logistics University
8) Tourism and Hospitality University (Tourism department)
9) Energy Institute
10) Telugu University (Education department)
11) TERI - Energy Resources - AP
12) Urdu University
13) YVR (Yalamanchili Infra Limited)
14) Web City (Virtual Academy - Higher Education Department)
15) Open University
16) GMR University
17) Natural History Park
18) Museum (Planning Department)
19) SRM University
20) Softbank
21) IIM (A) - SAARC University
22) Esha Yoga and Meditation Center
23) CII Knowledge Economy Zone
The Government of Andhra Pradesh has to allot the lands for these universities / institutions to set up campuses in various locations of the state.
NTR University of Health Sciences MD, MS, Diploma Admissions 2016-17
Dr NTR University of Health Sciences (NTRUHS), Vijaywada - Andhra Pradesh has announced notification for computer based (online) entrance test for admission into Post Graduate Medical Degree / Diploma Courses and MDS Courses for the academic year 2016-17.
Computer based online entrance test for admission into MD / MS / Diploma courses will be held on 28th February 2016 and for MDS course will be held on 6th March 2016 at the centers to be notified by NTR University.
Candidates have to submit applications online and send print outs of the applications offline along with enclosures. Online applications and instructions will be available on the website www.ntruhs.org from 28th December 2015.
Computer based online entrance test for admission into MD / MS / Diploma courses will be held on 28th February 2016 and for MDS course will be held on 6th March 2016 at the centers to be notified by NTR University.
Candidates have to submit applications online and send print outs of the applications offline along with enclosures. Online applications and instructions will be available on the website www.ntruhs.org from 28th December 2015.
Junior Inter Physics Important Questions for 2 and 4 Marks
Junior Inter Physics - System of Particles And Rotational Motion
Q: Is it necessary that mass should be present at the centre of mass of any system? (2 Marks)
A: It is not necessary that mass should be present at the centre of mass of any system. Ex: Circular ring.
Q: Why are spokes provided in a bicycle wheel? (2 Marks)
A: To ensure uniform speed of cycle wheel, it should possess large moment of inertia. To increase moment of inertia, the wheel is provided with spokes.
Q: By spinning eggs on a table top, how will you distinguish a hard boiled egg from a raw egg? (2 Marks)
A: A raw egg has some fluid in it and hard boiled egg is solid from inside. Both eggs are spinning on a table top, the fluid is thrown outwards. Then moment of inertia of raw egg is greater than boiled egg. i.e., Ir > Ib, ωr < ωb. So, raw egg will come to rest soon
Q: Why do we prefer a spanner of long arm as compared to the spanner of shorter arm? (2 Marks)
A: From the definition of torque (τ) = Force × Perpendicular distance.
For long arm spanner, perpendicular distance is large. Thus it provides more torque.
4 Marks Questions:
Q: Explain about the centre of mass of earthmoon system and its rotation around the sun.
A: The earth-moon rotates about common centre of mass. The mass of earth is about 81 times that of moon.
The centre of mass of earth-moon system locate relatively very nearer to the centre of the earth. The interaction between earth - moon does not affect the motion of centre of mass of earth-moon system. The gravitational attraction of the sun is only external force that acts on earth-moon system, centre of mass of the earth-moon system moves in
an elliptical path around the sun.
Q: Distinguish between centre of mass and centre of gravity
Answer:
Centre of mass:
1. Point at which entire mass of the body is supposed to be concentrated.
2. It may or may not lies inside the body.
3. It describes the nature of motion of the body as a whole.
4. It is independent of acceleration due to gravity.
Centre of gravity:
1. The point through which the weight of the body act.
2. It always lies inside the body.
3. It is defined to know the stability of the body.
4. It depends on acceleration due to gravity (g).
Q: Is it necessary that mass should be present at the centre of mass of any system? (2 Marks)
A: It is not necessary that mass should be present at the centre of mass of any system. Ex: Circular ring.
Q: Why are spokes provided in a bicycle wheel? (2 Marks)
A: To ensure uniform speed of cycle wheel, it should possess large moment of inertia. To increase moment of inertia, the wheel is provided with spokes.
Q: By spinning eggs on a table top, how will you distinguish a hard boiled egg from a raw egg? (2 Marks)
A: A raw egg has some fluid in it and hard boiled egg is solid from inside. Both eggs are spinning on a table top, the fluid is thrown outwards. Then moment of inertia of raw egg is greater than boiled egg. i.e., Ir > Ib, ωr < ωb. So, raw egg will come to rest soon
Q: Why do we prefer a spanner of long arm as compared to the spanner of shorter arm? (2 Marks)
A: From the definition of torque (τ) = Force × Perpendicular distance.
For long arm spanner, perpendicular distance is large. Thus it provides more torque.
4 Marks Questions:
Q: Explain about the centre of mass of earthmoon system and its rotation around the sun.
A: The earth-moon rotates about common centre of mass. The mass of earth is about 81 times that of moon.
The centre of mass of earth-moon system locate relatively very nearer to the centre of the earth. The interaction between earth - moon does not affect the motion of centre of mass of earth-moon system. The gravitational attraction of the sun is only external force that acts on earth-moon system, centre of mass of the earth-moon system moves in
an elliptical path around the sun.
Q: Distinguish between centre of mass and centre of gravity
Answer:
Centre of mass:
1. Point at which entire mass of the body is supposed to be concentrated.
2. It may or may not lies inside the body.
3. It describes the nature of motion of the body as a whole.
4. It is independent of acceleration due to gravity.
Centre of gravity:
1. The point through which the weight of the body act.
2. It always lies inside the body.
3. It is defined to know the stability of the body.
4. It depends on acceleration due to gravity (g).
NIMS Hyderabad MD and MS Admissions 2016-17
Nizams Institute of Medical Sciences (NIMS), Panjagutta, Hyderabad has issued notification for admission into post graduate medical - MD / MS courses for the academic year 2016-17. Candidates from Telangana and Andhra Pradesh can apply.
Details of specialisations and seats:
1) MD Anaesthesiology: 7 seats
2) MD Biochemistry: 4 seats
3) MD General Medicine: 4 seats
4) MD Hospital Administration: 3 seats
5) MD Orthopaedics: 6 seats
6) MD Pathology: 5 seats
7) MD Radiotherapy: 3 seats
Duration of the course is 3 years. Candidates should have passed in MBBS.
Application forms and other details can be downloaded from the NIMS website at www.nims.edu.in after 28th December 2015. The selection will be based on the entrance test to be conducted by NIMS on 6th March 2016.
Details of specialisations and seats:
1) MD Anaesthesiology: 7 seats
2) MD Biochemistry: 4 seats
3) MD General Medicine: 4 seats
4) MD Hospital Administration: 3 seats
5) MD Orthopaedics: 6 seats
6) MD Pathology: 5 seats
7) MD Radiotherapy: 3 seats
Duration of the course is 3 years. Candidates should have passed in MBBS.
Application forms and other details can be downloaded from the NIMS website at www.nims.edu.in after 28th December 2015. The selection will be based on the entrance test to be conducted by NIMS on 6th March 2016.
NTR University M.Sc Nursing Admissions 2015-16 for Sri Padmavathamma College
Dr NTR University of Health Sciences, Vijayawada - Andhra Pradesh has announced admission notification for M.Sc Nursing course in Sri Padmavathamma Government College of Nursing, Tirupati for the academic year 2015-16.
1st and final counseling for provisional admission into M.Sc Nursing in Sri Padmavathamma Government College of Nursing, Tirupati will be held on 30th December 2015 at Dr NTR University of Health Sciences, Vijayawada.
All the eligible women candidates those qualified in Entrance Examination held on 16 August 2015 can attend the counselling. For more details, see the website ntruhs.ap.nic.in .
1st and final counseling for provisional admission into M.Sc Nursing in Sri Padmavathamma Government College of Nursing, Tirupati will be held on 30th December 2015 at Dr NTR University of Health Sciences, Vijayawada.
All the eligible women candidates those qualified in Entrance Examination held on 16 August 2015 can attend the counselling. For more details, see the website ntruhs.ap.nic.in .
Osmania University M Tech Part Time PG Programmes - 2015
Osmania University, Hyderabad (OU) has announced notification for admission into Part - Time (6- Semester) Post Graduate courses under self finance leading to M.Tech. Chemical Engineering (Plant Design)/ Food Technology (Food Processing Technology)/ Textile Technology (Apparel Technology) for the academic year 2015-2016.
Number of seats: 15 + 2 (for Sponsored Candidates)
Selection: Selection of the candidates will be through Entrance Test at UG Level conducted by UCT, OU.
Eligibility requirements:
M.Tech Chemical Engineering (Plant Design): Candidates should have first class in B.E/ B.Tech Chemical Engineering.
M.Tech Food Technology (Food Processing Technology): Candidates need first class in B.Tech (Food Processing and Preservation Technology/ Food Processing Technology/ Food Technology/ Food Science and Technology/ Food Science/ Food Process Engineering/ Dairy Technology/ Dairy Science/ Oils and Fat Technology/ Fermentation Technology/ Food
Engineering) and M. Sc. (Food Technology/ Food Science and Technology/ Dairy Technology/ Food Technology and Management/ Marine Technology)
M.Tech Textile Technology (Apparel Technology): Need first class B.Tech.(Textile Technology/ Textile Chemistry/ Textile Engineering/ Fibre Science and Technology/ Apparel Technology/ Fashion Technology).
Experience: All the candidates should have two years experience at the time of Admission in Industry/ Academics/ R& D in Chemical Engineering / Food/ Textile Fields.
Filled in applications should reach the address: Office of the Principal, University College of Technology, Osmania University, Hyderabad (T.S).
Last date for submission of applications: 5 January 2016.
Entrance date and counseling date: 18 January 2016.
Number of seats: 15 + 2 (for Sponsored Candidates)
Selection: Selection of the candidates will be through Entrance Test at UG Level conducted by UCT, OU.
Eligibility requirements:
M.Tech Chemical Engineering (Plant Design): Candidates should have first class in B.E/ B.Tech Chemical Engineering.
M.Tech Food Technology (Food Processing Technology): Candidates need first class in B.Tech (Food Processing and Preservation Technology/ Food Processing Technology/ Food Technology/ Food Science and Technology/ Food Science/ Food Process Engineering/ Dairy Technology/ Dairy Science/ Oils and Fat Technology/ Fermentation Technology/ Food
Engineering) and M. Sc. (Food Technology/ Food Science and Technology/ Dairy Technology/ Food Technology and Management/ Marine Technology)
M.Tech Textile Technology (Apparel Technology): Need first class B.Tech.(Textile Technology/ Textile Chemistry/ Textile Engineering/ Fibre Science and Technology/ Apparel Technology/ Fashion Technology).
Experience: All the candidates should have two years experience at the time of Admission in Industry/ Academics/ R& D in Chemical Engineering / Food/ Textile Fields.
Filled in applications should reach the address: Office of the Principal, University College of Technology, Osmania University, Hyderabad (T.S).
Last date for submission of applications: 5 January 2016.
Entrance date and counseling date: 18 January 2016.
AP PGECET 2016 on 26th May by JNTU Kakinada of Andhra Pradesh
The AP PGECET - 2016 examination will be conducted on 26th May 2016. The entrance examination will be conducted by JNTU Kakinada. The online application process will be conducted through the website of AP PGECET at www.apschepgecet.net . Admission into post graduate programmes in Engineering, Technology, Pharmacy, D.Pharm., Architecture and Planning courses in all University and affiliated colleges in Andhra Pradesh will be conducted through ranks in AP PGECET 2016 only for the academic year 2016-17.
Entrance Test Name: AP PGECET- 2016
Available Courses: M.E./ M.Tech./M.Pharm./ M.Arch./ M.Plannin./ Pharm.D.
Last date for receipt of applications: April 2016
Eligibility for AP PGECET 2016: Candidates should have passed in B.E/B.Tech./B.Pharm./ AMIE/ B.Arch./ B.Planning in the relevant discipline. Candidates who have qualified in GATE/GPAT exams need not appear for entrance test. There will be separate admission notification for these candidates.
Application Procedure: Interested candidates can apply online only after the announcement of AP PGECET notification in 2016.
Important Dates:
Start of online applications for AP PGECET 2016: March / April 2016
Last date for the online applications: April 2016
Date of AP PGECET - 2016: 26th May 2016.
Entrance Test Name: AP PGECET- 2016
Available Courses: M.E./ M.Tech./M.Pharm./ M.Arch./ M.Plannin./ Pharm.D.
Last date for receipt of applications: April 2016
Eligibility for AP PGECET 2016: Candidates should have passed in B.E/B.Tech./B.Pharm./ AMIE/ B.Arch./ B.Planning in the relevant discipline. Candidates who have qualified in GATE/GPAT exams need not appear for entrance test. There will be separate admission notification for these candidates.
Application Procedure: Interested candidates can apply online only after the announcement of AP PGECET notification in 2016.
Important Dates:
Start of online applications for AP PGECET 2016: March / April 2016
Last date for the online applications: April 2016
Date of AP PGECET - 2016: 26th May 2016.
AP EAMCET on 5th May 2016 - Notification in March 2016
The Government of Andhra Pradesh has released the AP EAMCET 2016 dates. The examination will be held on 5th May 2016 across the state of Andhra Pradesh. The Engineering, Agricultural and Medical Common Entrance Test-2016 (AP EAMCET-2016) of Andhra Pradesh will be conducted by Jawaharlal Nehru Technological University, Kakinada (JNTUK). The EAMCET entrance exam is for entry into following engineering and pharma professional courses for the academic year 2016-17.
1. Engineering, Bio-Technology, B.Tech. (Dairy Technology), B.Tech. (Agricultural Engineering), B.Pharmacy, B.Tech. (Food Science and Technology/ B.Sc. (CABM - Commercial Agriculture and Business Management)
2. B.Sc. (Agriculture)/ B.Sc. (Horticulture)/ B.V.Sc and A.H (Veterinary Science and Animal Husbandry)/ B.F.Sc (Food Science).
Other Courses: 3. MBBS/ BDS, 4. BAMS/ BHMS/ BNYS, 5. Pharm-D
Online applications: Candidates may submit their applications through online mode only from www.apeamcet.org .
Date of AP EAMCET: 5 May 2016.
Commencement of online application submission: March 2016.
Last date for submission without late fee: April 2016.
Download of AP EAMCET 2016 Hall Tickets from website: April - May 2016
Website: www.apeamcet.org
1. Engineering, Bio-Technology, B.Tech. (Dairy Technology), B.Tech. (Agricultural Engineering), B.Pharmacy, B.Tech. (Food Science and Technology/ B.Sc. (CABM - Commercial Agriculture and Business Management)
2. B.Sc. (Agriculture)/ B.Sc. (Horticulture)/ B.V.Sc and A.H (Veterinary Science and Animal Husbandry)/ B.F.Sc (Food Science).
Other Courses: 3. MBBS/ BDS, 4. BAMS/ BHMS/ BNYS, 5. Pharm-D
Online applications: Candidates may submit their applications through online mode only from www.apeamcet.org .
Date of AP EAMCET: 5 May 2016.
Commencement of online application submission: March 2016.
Last date for submission without late fee: April 2016.
Download of AP EAMCET 2016 Hall Tickets from website: April - May 2016
Website: www.apeamcet.org
CETs Dates in Andhra Pradesh 2016 - EAMCET, ICET, EDCET, PGECET 2016 Dates Released
The Government of Andhra Pradesh has released examination dates for various CETs (Common Entrance Tests) to be conducted in 2016 for admission into various graduate and post graduate courses for the academic year 2016-17. Following are dates of important CETs in Andhra Pradesh.
1) AP EAMCET 2016: 5th May 2016 (By JNTU Kakinada)
2) AP ECET 2016: 9th May 2016 (By JNTU Anantapur)
3) AP ICET 2016: 16th May 2016 (By Andhra University)
4) AP EDCET 2016: 23rd May (SV University)
5) AP PGECET 2016: 26th May (JNTU Kakinada)
6) AP LAWCET 2016: 28th May 2016 (SK University)
7) AP PGLCET 2016: 28th May 2016 (SK University)
8) AP PECET 2016: 9th May 2016 (Nagarjuna University)
The counseling for the admissions will be conducted from Amaravati, new capital of Andhra Pradesh. The department of education will start functioning from Amaravati very soon, as per the official sources.
1) AP EAMCET 2016: 5th May 2016 (By JNTU Kakinada)
2) AP ECET 2016: 9th May 2016 (By JNTU Anantapur)
3) AP ICET 2016: 16th May 2016 (By Andhra University)
4) AP EDCET 2016: 23rd May (SV University)
5) AP PGECET 2016: 26th May (JNTU Kakinada)
6) AP LAWCET 2016: 28th May 2016 (SK University)
7) AP PGLCET 2016: 28th May 2016 (SK University)
8) AP PECET 2016: 9th May 2016 (Nagarjuna University)
The counseling for the admissions will be conducted from Amaravati, new capital of Andhra Pradesh. The department of education will start functioning from Amaravati very soon, as per the official sources.
BITSAT - 2015 Cut Offs for Hyderabad Campus for BE, Pharmacy and M.Sc Admissions
Following are the BITSAT - 2015 cut off scores for Hyderabad Campus. The courses offered by BITS Hyderabad campus are BE Chemical, Civil, Electrical and Electronics, Mechanical, Computer Science, Manufacturing etc. See the cut offs for 2015-16 admissions below:
1) B.E.(Hons.): Chemical Engineering - 296
2) B.E.(Hons.): Civil Engineering - 303
3) B.E.(Hons.): Electrical and Electronics Engineering - 318
4) B.E.(Hons.): Mechanical Engineering - 315
5) B.E.(Hons.): Computer Science Engineering - 339
6) B.E.(Hons.): Electronics and Communication - 326
7) B.E.(Hons.): Electronics and Instrumentation Engineering - 311
8) B.E.(Hons.): Manufacturing Engineering - 296
9) B.Pharm.(Hons.) - 201
10) M.Sc.(Hons.): Biological Sciences - 292
11) M.Sc.(Hons.): Chemistry - 295
12) M.Sc.(Hons.): Economics - 305
13) M.Sc.(Hons.): Mathematics - 302
14) M.Sc.(Hons.): Physics - 302
1) B.E.(Hons.): Chemical Engineering - 296
2) B.E.(Hons.): Civil Engineering - 303
3) B.E.(Hons.): Electrical and Electronics Engineering - 318
4) B.E.(Hons.): Mechanical Engineering - 315
5) B.E.(Hons.): Computer Science Engineering - 339
6) B.E.(Hons.): Electronics and Communication - 326
7) B.E.(Hons.): Electronics and Instrumentation Engineering - 311
8) B.E.(Hons.): Manufacturing Engineering - 296
9) B.Pharm.(Hons.) - 201
10) M.Sc.(Hons.): Biological Sciences - 292
11) M.Sc.(Hons.): Chemistry - 295
12) M.Sc.(Hons.): Economics - 305
13) M.Sc.(Hons.): Mathematics - 302
14) M.Sc.(Hons.): Physics - 302
University of Hyderabad Distance Education Admission Notification 2016
University of Hyderabad, a Central University has announced admission notification for distance education courses for the year 2016-17. The applications are invited from Graduates for the following post graduate diploma courses to be offered in Distance Education Mode.
PG Diploma Courses: Project Management, Chemical Analysis and Quality Management, Cyber Law and Intellectual Property Rights, Business Management, Criminal Justice and Forensic Science, Governance, Human Rights, Telecommunications, Communicative English, Translation Studies in Hindi, Medicinal Botany, Library Automation and Networking and Energy Management.
Eligibility: Candidates should have Graduation in any discipline. For science and technical subjects, candidates should have studied those subjects at Graduation level.
Admission to the above programmes will be based on the performance in academic merit, past academic performance and professional experience. Application forms can be downloaded from the website www.cde.uohyd.ac.in . Last date for the receipt of filled in applications is 31st January 2016.
PG Diploma Courses: Project Management, Chemical Analysis and Quality Management, Cyber Law and Intellectual Property Rights, Business Management, Criminal Justice and Forensic Science, Governance, Human Rights, Telecommunications, Communicative English, Translation Studies in Hindi, Medicinal Botany, Library Automation and Networking and Energy Management.
Eligibility: Candidates should have Graduation in any discipline. For science and technical subjects, candidates should have studied those subjects at Graduation level.
Admission to the above programmes will be based on the performance in academic merit, past academic performance and professional experience. Application forms can be downloaded from the website www.cde.uohyd.ac.in . Last date for the receipt of filled in applications is 31st January 2016.
Nalsar Management Entrance Test - NMET 2016
NALSAR University of Law, Hyderabad has announced notification inviting applications for Nalsar Management Entrance Test (N-MET 2016) for admission into Management programmes for the academic year 2016-17.
Eligibility: Candidates should be graduates of any discipline with at least 50 percent marks in aggregate. They also need valid CAT-2015 / XAT-2016 / CMAT 2015/ GMAT/ GRE scores can apply. Candidates appearing for the final year qualifying exams are also eligible to apply.
Number of seats: 60
Interested candidates may apply online only. Last date for the receipt of filled in application forms is 29 February 2016.
Date of NMET: 27 March 2016.
Eligibility: Candidates should be graduates of any discipline with at least 50 percent marks in aggregate. They also need valid CAT-2015 / XAT-2016 / CMAT 2015/ GMAT/ GRE scores can apply. Candidates appearing for the final year qualifying exams are also eligible to apply.
Number of seats: 60
Interested candidates may apply online only. Last date for the receipt of filled in application forms is 29 February 2016.
Date of NMET: 27 March 2016.
Junior Inter IPE Exams - Botany Imp Questions for 2 Marks from 6-7 Chapters
Q: What is self-incompatibility?
A: The inability of pollen to germinate on the stigma of the same flower is called selfincompatibility or self-sterility.
Ex: Abutilon
Q: Which is the triploid tissue in a fertilized ovule? How is the triploid condition
achieved?
A: Endosperm.
Triploid condition is achieved by fertilization of second male gamete with two polar
nuclei of central cell to form a primary endosperm nucleus. The primary endosperm nucleus (PEN) divides and forms endosperm in fertilized ovule (seed).
Q: What is the function of two male gametes produced by each pollen grain in
angiosperms.
A: The first male gamete fuses with the female egg cell to form a zygote (fertilization
or syngamy).
The second male gamete fuses with the diploid secondary nucleus (triple fusion) to
form PEN (Primary endosperm nucleus) which gives rise to endosperm.
Q: Name the parts of an angiosperm flower in which development of male and female
gametophyte take place.
A: Male gametophyte - pollen grain.
Female gametophyte (embryosac) - nucellus of the ovule.
Q: Mention two strategies evolved to prevent self-pollination in flowers.
A: Dichogamy
Herkogamy
Q: Why do you think the zygote is dormant for some time in a fertilized ovule?
A: Zygote is dependent for its nourishment on the endosperm to form an embryo.
Hence it is dormant for some time until some endosperm is formed.
Q: What is meant by scutellum? In which type of seeds it is present?
A: The cotyledon of a monocot embryo is called scutellum. It is present in monocot
seeds Ex: Grasses.
Q: Define with examples endospermic and non-endospermic seeds.
A: Endospermic seeds - castor and coconut
Non endospermic seeds - groundnut, beans and peas.
A: The inability of pollen to germinate on the stigma of the same flower is called selfincompatibility or self-sterility.
Ex: Abutilon
Q: Which is the triploid tissue in a fertilized ovule? How is the triploid condition
achieved?
A: Endosperm.
Triploid condition is achieved by fertilization of second male gamete with two polar
nuclei of central cell to form a primary endosperm nucleus. The primary endosperm nucleus (PEN) divides and forms endosperm in fertilized ovule (seed).
Q: What is the function of two male gametes produced by each pollen grain in
angiosperms.
A: The first male gamete fuses with the female egg cell to form a zygote (fertilization
or syngamy).
The second male gamete fuses with the diploid secondary nucleus (triple fusion) to
form PEN (Primary endosperm nucleus) which gives rise to endosperm.
Q: Name the parts of an angiosperm flower in which development of male and female
gametophyte take place.
A: Male gametophyte - pollen grain.
Female gametophyte (embryosac) - nucellus of the ovule.
Q: Mention two strategies evolved to prevent self-pollination in flowers.
A: Dichogamy
Herkogamy
Q: Why do you think the zygote is dormant for some time in a fertilized ovule?
A: Zygote is dependent for its nourishment on the endosperm to form an embryo.
Hence it is dormant for some time until some endosperm is formed.
Q: What is meant by scutellum? In which type of seeds it is present?
A: The cotyledon of a monocot embryo is called scutellum. It is present in monocot
seeds Ex: Grasses.
Q: Define with examples endospermic and non-endospermic seeds.
A: Endospermic seeds - castor and coconut
Non endospermic seeds - groundnut, beans and peas.
IPE Junior Inter Botany Important Questions - 4 Marks from Taxonomy
Q: Describe the essential floral parts of plants belonging to Liliaceae.
A: Androecium and gynoecium are the essential floral parts. In Liliaceae the androecium
and gynoecium show the following features:
Androecium: six stamens in two whorls of three each, free or epiphyllous (attached to
tepals), anthers are dithecous, basifixed, introrse and show longitudinal dehiscence.
Gynoecium: Tricarpellary, syncarpous, ovary superior, trilocular with ovules on
axile placentation. Style is terminal, stigma trifid or capitate.
Q: Write a brief account on the class of Dicotyledonae of Bentham and Hooker's
classification.
A: Bentham and Hooker divided flowering plants into three classes:
Dicotyledonae
Gymnospermae and
Monocotyledonae
Dicotyledonae: The class dicotyledonae is divided into three subclasses based on the
number of perianth whorls and their union. They are: Polypetalae, Gamopetalae and,
Monochlamydae.
The sub class polypetalae is divided into three series:
Thalamiflorae with 6 cohorts (orders)
Disciflorae (with 4 cohorts)
Calyciflorae (5 cohorts)
The subclass gamopetalae is divided into three series:
Inferae (3 cohorts)
Heteromerae (3 cohorts) and
Bicarpellatae (4 cohorts)
The sub class monochlamydae is divided into 8 series (not divided into cohorts).
Each cohort is further divided into natural orders (families). The dicotyledonae contains 165 natural orders.
Q: Give economic importance of plants belonging to Fabaceae.
A: Economic importance of Fabaceae: The plants are a good source of proteins (pulses).
Ex: Cajanus, Cicer
Pods of beans are used as vegetables. Ex: Phaseolus
Edible oil is obtained from soya bean and groundnut. Ex: Arachis
Timber is produced by rose wood. Ex: Dalbergia
Blue dye from Indigofera and yellow dye from Butea are obtained.
Derris is used in medicine.
Crotalaria, Phaseolus are used as fodder.
Sesbania and Tephrosia are used as green manure.
A: Androecium and gynoecium are the essential floral parts. In Liliaceae the androecium
and gynoecium show the following features:
Androecium: six stamens in two whorls of three each, free or epiphyllous (attached to
tepals), anthers are dithecous, basifixed, introrse and show longitudinal dehiscence.
Gynoecium: Tricarpellary, syncarpous, ovary superior, trilocular with ovules on
axile placentation. Style is terminal, stigma trifid or capitate.
Q: Write a brief account on the class of Dicotyledonae of Bentham and Hooker's
classification.
A: Bentham and Hooker divided flowering plants into three classes:
Dicotyledonae
Gymnospermae and
Monocotyledonae
Dicotyledonae: The class dicotyledonae is divided into three subclasses based on the
number of perianth whorls and their union. They are: Polypetalae, Gamopetalae and,
Monochlamydae.
The sub class polypetalae is divided into three series:
Thalamiflorae with 6 cohorts (orders)
Disciflorae (with 4 cohorts)
Calyciflorae (5 cohorts)
The subclass gamopetalae is divided into three series:
Inferae (3 cohorts)
Heteromerae (3 cohorts) and
Bicarpellatae (4 cohorts)
The sub class monochlamydae is divided into 8 series (not divided into cohorts).
Each cohort is further divided into natural orders (families). The dicotyledonae contains 165 natural orders.
Q: Give economic importance of plants belonging to Fabaceae.
A: Economic importance of Fabaceae: The plants are a good source of proteins (pulses).
Ex: Cajanus, Cicer
Pods of beans are used as vegetables. Ex: Phaseolus
Edible oil is obtained from soya bean and groundnut. Ex: Arachis
Timber is produced by rose wood. Ex: Dalbergia
Blue dye from Indigofera and yellow dye from Butea are obtained.
Derris is used in medicine.
Crotalaria, Phaseolus are used as fodder.
Sesbania and Tephrosia are used as green manure.
Junior Inter Botany Imp 4 Marks Questions from Taxonomy of Angiosperms
Q: Write a brief note on semi technical description of a typical flowering plant.
A: Description of parts of a flowering plant is necessary for characterization, identification and classification of plants. Technical terms are used to describe the habit, habitat, vegetative characters (roots, stem and leaves) and floral characters like inflorescence, flower in general and detail, fruit, seed, pollination etc.
A typical flowering plant is described using technical terminology as follows:
Habit: Herb/ Shrub/ Tree/ Climber etc.
Habitat: Mesophyte/ xerophytes/ hydrophyte etc.
Vegetative characters:
Root: Taproot/ Fibrous root/ Modifications if any.
Stem: Woody/ herbaceous/ climber/ creeper etc
Leaf: Radical/ cauline/ venation/ phyllotaxy
Floral characters:
Inflorescence: Position and type
Flower: general description like presence or absence of bracts, bracteoles etc, merosity, sexuality, symmetry and type based on position of the ovary.
Calyx: No. of sepals, union, aestivation.
Corolla: No. of petals, union, aestivation etc.
Androecium: No. of stamens, their union, anthers etc.
Gynoecium: No. and union of carpels, No. of
locules, position of ovary, placentation etc.
Pollination: Self or cross pollination, contrivances and mechanisms.
Fruit: type
Seed: Dicot or monocot, endospermic or non endospermic.
Q: Describe the non-essential floral parts of plants belonging to Fabaceae.
A: Calyx and corolla are the non-essential floral parts. In Fabaceae the calyx and corolla show the following features:
Calyx: Sepals five, gamosepalous (united), valvate or imbricate aestivation, odd sepal
anterior.
Corolla: Five petals, polypetalous (free), papilionaceous corolla with one large standard petal, two lateral wing petals and two anterior fused petals called keel petals. The keel petals enclose essential organs. The odd petal is posterior. Vexillary or descendingly imbricate aestivation.
Q: Give an account of floral diagram.
A: Floral diagram and floral formula are used to describe the flower precisely.
Floral diagram gives information about the number of parts of a flower, their arrangement and interrelationships with one another.
The axis represents the posterior side and indicated as a dot or circle on the top of the floral diagram.
The bract represents the anterior side and indicated at the bottom of the floral diagram.
If bracteoles are present they are indicated beside the bract.
The four whorls of a flower calyx, corolla, androecium and gynoecium are indicated as
successive whorls from outside to inside.
The outermost whorl is the calyx and the innermost whorl represents gynoecium.
Floral formula is usually written below the floral diagram to describe the flower with
symbols and numbers.
A: Description of parts of a flowering plant is necessary for characterization, identification and classification of plants. Technical terms are used to describe the habit, habitat, vegetative characters (roots, stem and leaves) and floral characters like inflorescence, flower in general and detail, fruit, seed, pollination etc.
A typical flowering plant is described using technical terminology as follows:
Habit: Herb/ Shrub/ Tree/ Climber etc.
Habitat: Mesophyte/ xerophytes/ hydrophyte etc.
Vegetative characters:
Root: Taproot/ Fibrous root/ Modifications if any.
Stem: Woody/ herbaceous/ climber/ creeper etc
Leaf: Radical/ cauline/ venation/ phyllotaxy
Floral characters:
Inflorescence: Position and type
Flower: general description like presence or absence of bracts, bracteoles etc, merosity, sexuality, symmetry and type based on position of the ovary.
Calyx: No. of sepals, union, aestivation.
Corolla: No. of petals, union, aestivation etc.
Androecium: No. of stamens, their union, anthers etc.
Gynoecium: No. and union of carpels, No. of
locules, position of ovary, placentation etc.
Pollination: Self or cross pollination, contrivances and mechanisms.
Fruit: type
Seed: Dicot or monocot, endospermic or non endospermic.
Q: Describe the non-essential floral parts of plants belonging to Fabaceae.
A: Calyx and corolla are the non-essential floral parts. In Fabaceae the calyx and corolla show the following features:
Calyx: Sepals five, gamosepalous (united), valvate or imbricate aestivation, odd sepal
anterior.
Corolla: Five petals, polypetalous (free), papilionaceous corolla with one large standard petal, two lateral wing petals and two anterior fused petals called keel petals. The keel petals enclose essential organs. The odd petal is posterior. Vexillary or descendingly imbricate aestivation.
Q: Give an account of floral diagram.
A: Floral diagram and floral formula are used to describe the flower precisely.
Floral diagram gives information about the number of parts of a flower, their arrangement and interrelationships with one another.
The axis represents the posterior side and indicated as a dot or circle on the top of the floral diagram.
The bract represents the anterior side and indicated at the bottom of the floral diagram.
If bracteoles are present they are indicated beside the bract.
The four whorls of a flower calyx, corolla, androecium and gynoecium are indicated as
successive whorls from outside to inside.
The outermost whorl is the calyx and the innermost whorl represents gynoecium.
Floral formula is usually written below the floral diagram to describe the flower with
symbols and numbers.
Junior Inter Botany - Imp Questions for IPE Exams - Taxonomy of Angiosperms
Q: What is 'Omega Taxonomy'?
A: The taxonomy which uses information from other sources like embryology, cytology,
palynology, phyto chemistry, serology etc. along with morphological features is
known as 'Omega Taxonomy'.
Q: What is natural system of plant classification?
Name the scientists who followed it.
A: The system of classification that considers all possible morphological characters and their natural relationships is called natural system of classification.
Bentham and Hooker followed this system.
Q: Explain the scope and significance of Numerical taxonomy.
A: Numerical taxonomy can be used to evaluate differences and similarities between
taxonomic groups using mathematics and computers.
As this method uses numbers and codes it is easy and quick process and can be used
for hundreds of characters at a time.
Q: What is geocarpy? Name the plant which exhibits this phenomenon.
A: Production of fruit inside the soil is called geocarpy.
Arachis hypogea (groundnut).
Q: Name the type of pollination mechanism found in members of Fabaceae.
A: Piston mechanism.
Q: Give the technical description of anthers of Allium cepa.
A: Anthers of Allium cepa are dithecous, basifixed, introrse and show longitudinal
dehiscence.
Q: Give the technical description of ovary of Solanum nigrum. (2 Marks)
A: The ovary of Solanum nigrum is bi or unilocular, superior ovary with many ovules on
axile placenta. The carpels are arranged obliquely at 45°. Style is terminal and stigma
capitate.
A: The taxonomy which uses information from other sources like embryology, cytology,
palynology, phyto chemistry, serology etc. along with morphological features is
known as 'Omega Taxonomy'.
Q: What is natural system of plant classification?
Name the scientists who followed it.
A: The system of classification that considers all possible morphological characters and their natural relationships is called natural system of classification.
Bentham and Hooker followed this system.
Q: Explain the scope and significance of Numerical taxonomy.
A: Numerical taxonomy can be used to evaluate differences and similarities between
taxonomic groups using mathematics and computers.
As this method uses numbers and codes it is easy and quick process and can be used
for hundreds of characters at a time.
Q: What is geocarpy? Name the plant which exhibits this phenomenon.
A: Production of fruit inside the soil is called geocarpy.
Arachis hypogea (groundnut).
Q: Name the type of pollination mechanism found in members of Fabaceae.
A: Piston mechanism.
Q: Give the technical description of anthers of Allium cepa.
A: Anthers of Allium cepa are dithecous, basifixed, introrse and show longitudinal
dehiscence.
Q: Give the technical description of ovary of Solanum nigrum. (2 Marks)
A: The ovary of Solanum nigrum is bi or unilocular, superior ovary with many ovules on
axile placenta. The carpels are arranged obliquely at 45°. Style is terminal and stigma
capitate.
Andhra Brahmin Corporation Training Programmes 2015-16
Andhra Pradesh Brahmin Welfare Organisation (a Government of Andhra Pradesh owned organisation) has announced ABC Limited Dronacharya Scheme for the unemployed Brahman youth in the state of Andhra Pradesh. The organisation is imparting training in the following areas:
Areas of training: Arranging solar plates and management, retail industry, communication, facing interviews and analytical abilities, engineering (electrical, mechanical, electronics, IT, CSE), Information technology (Java, Dotnet, Testing), communication and interest.
Duration of the training is 12 days to 45 days. Training centers are available at Vizianagaram, Vizag, Rajahmundry, Amalapuram, Vijayawada, Nellore and Tirupati.
Candidates should have passed in Intermediate, ITI, Graduation or B.Tech (Any one of these qualifications is required.). Interested candidates can apply online through www.andhrabrahmin.org. Last date for the online registrations is 31 December 2015.
Address: Andhra Brahmin Welfare Organisation, 3rd floor, Endowments Commissionarate, Government of AP, Tilak Road, Abids, Hyderabad. Phone: 040 - 24767879.
Email: apbrahmincorporation@gmail.com
Website: www.andhrabrahmin.org .
Areas of training: Arranging solar plates and management, retail industry, communication, facing interviews and analytical abilities, engineering (electrical, mechanical, electronics, IT, CSE), Information technology (Java, Dotnet, Testing), communication and interest.
Duration of the training is 12 days to 45 days. Training centers are available at Vizianagaram, Vizag, Rajahmundry, Amalapuram, Vijayawada, Nellore and Tirupati.
Candidates should have passed in Intermediate, ITI, Graduation or B.Tech (Any one of these qualifications is required.). Interested candidates can apply online through www.andhrabrahmin.org. Last date for the online registrations is 31 December 2015.
Address: Andhra Brahmin Welfare Organisation, 3rd floor, Endowments Commissionarate, Government of AP, Tilak Road, Abids, Hyderabad. Phone: 040 - 24767879.
Email: apbrahmincorporation@gmail.com
Website: www.andhrabrahmin.org .
Sri Venkateswara University Tirupati - Distance Education Admissions 2015-16
Directorate of Distance Education (DDE), Sri Venkateswara University, Tirupati (Andhra Pradesh) has issued admission notification for the academic year 2015-16. The details of the courses are given below:
1) PG Courses: MA Telugu, English, Hindi, Economics, History, Political Science and Public Administration, Sociology, Master of Social Work, MLiSc.
2) M.Sc : Physics, Chemistry, Zoology, Botany, Psychology, Mathematics, Computer Science
3) M.Com, M.Com (FM), Executive MBA, MBA
4) BA, B.Sc (BZC, MPC, MSCs, MPE, MECs, MPCs), B.Com, B.Lic.Sc.
5) PG Diploma Courses: Industrial Relations and Personnel Management, Guidance and Counseling.
The study centers are available in the state of Andhra Pradesh only. For more details, candidates can see the website www.svudde.in .
1) PG Courses: MA Telugu, English, Hindi, Economics, History, Political Science and Public Administration, Sociology, Master of Social Work, MLiSc.
2) M.Sc : Physics, Chemistry, Zoology, Botany, Psychology, Mathematics, Computer Science
3) M.Com, M.Com (FM), Executive MBA, MBA
4) BA, B.Sc (BZC, MPC, MSCs, MPE, MECs, MPCs), B.Com, B.Lic.Sc.
5) PG Diploma Courses: Industrial Relations and Personnel Management, Guidance and Counseling.
The study centers are available in the state of Andhra Pradesh only. For more details, candidates can see the website www.svudde.in .
Junior Inter Chemistry - 2 Marks Imp Questions - Organic and Environmental Chemistry
Q: Define "COD". How is it determined?
A: The amount of oxygen required to oxidise organic material present
in polluted water. It is determined with acidified (50% H2SO4)
K2Cr2O7.
Q: Define "Sink" and "Receptor".
A: Sink: The medium which is not only effected by the pollutant but
also remains there. Trees are sinks of CO2.
Receptor: The medium which is badly effected by the pollutant. Eyes
are receptors during traffic jam.
Q: What is "Threshold Limit Value" (TLV)?
A: The permissible level of a toxic pollutant in atmosphere where a
healthy person works in that atmosphere for 8 hours per day without
any adverse effect.
Q: What is "green house effect"?
A: The phenomenon of gradual rise of temperature of earth due to
absorption of infrared radiation of sun rays by the gases like CO2,
CH4, CFCs and O3.
Q: Which oxides cause acid rains? What is its pH value?
A: Acid rains are caused by the oxides NO2 and SO2 (due to formation
of H2SO4, HNO3) when they reacts with O2 & H2O. pH of acid rain water
is below 5.6.
Q: Name two adverse effects caused by acid rains.
A: Decrease of fertility of soil as acid rains dissolve nutrients and
washes away.
Damage of historical monuments like Taj Mahal.
Q: What is "ozone hole"? Where was it first observed?
A: The depletion of ozone layer present in stratosphere is caused by
CFCs. It was first observed over the south pole.
Q: What are the harmful effects caused by ozone layer depletion?
A: Causes skin cancer & cataract.
Damage to fish productivity.
Paints & fibres fade faster.
Decrease of moisture in soil.
Q: What is 'Eutrophication'?
A: Drying of lake due to overgrowth & decay of algae and other plants
& killing of fish (due to lack of oxygen) due to over nutrition of
lake water.
Q: What is "Green Chemistry"?
A: New branch of Chemistry which helps in reduction in the production
& use of harmful pollutants by using existing knowledge of Chemistry
and other sciences.
Q: Explain the principle of Chromatography.
A: The technique in which the mixture of substances is applied on
stationary phase (solid or liquid) and a mobile phase (gas or solvent)
is allowed to move slowly over the stationary phase. The components
are separated from one another in pure form.
Q: What is "Carcinogenicity"? Name two compounds cause it.
A: Cancer producing property by fused benzene rings (3 or more), which
are formed due to incomplete combustion of tobacco, coal and
petroleum.
Eg: 1, 2, - Benzpyrene, 1, 2 - Benzanthracene
A: The amount of oxygen required to oxidise organic material present
in polluted water. It is determined with acidified (50% H2SO4)
K2Cr2O7.
Q: Define "Sink" and "Receptor".
A: Sink: The medium which is not only effected by the pollutant but
also remains there. Trees are sinks of CO2.
Receptor: The medium which is badly effected by the pollutant. Eyes
are receptors during traffic jam.
Q: What is "Threshold Limit Value" (TLV)?
A: The permissible level of a toxic pollutant in atmosphere where a
healthy person works in that atmosphere for 8 hours per day without
any adverse effect.
Q: What is "green house effect"?
A: The phenomenon of gradual rise of temperature of earth due to
absorption of infrared radiation of sun rays by the gases like CO2,
CH4, CFCs and O3.
Q: Which oxides cause acid rains? What is its pH value?
A: Acid rains are caused by the oxides NO2 and SO2 (due to formation
of H2SO4, HNO3) when they reacts with O2 & H2O. pH of acid rain water
is below 5.6.
Q: Name two adverse effects caused by acid rains.
A: Decrease of fertility of soil as acid rains dissolve nutrients and
washes away.
Damage of historical monuments like Taj Mahal.
Q: What is "ozone hole"? Where was it first observed?
A: The depletion of ozone layer present in stratosphere is caused by
CFCs. It was first observed over the south pole.
Q: What are the harmful effects caused by ozone layer depletion?
A: Causes skin cancer & cataract.
Damage to fish productivity.
Paints & fibres fade faster.
Decrease of moisture in soil.
Q: What is 'Eutrophication'?
A: Drying of lake due to overgrowth & decay of algae and other plants
& killing of fish (due to lack of oxygen) due to over nutrition of
lake water.
Q: What is "Green Chemistry"?
A: New branch of Chemistry which helps in reduction in the production
& use of harmful pollutants by using existing knowledge of Chemistry
and other sciences.
Q: Explain the principle of Chromatography.
A: The technique in which the mixture of substances is applied on
stationary phase (solid or liquid) and a mobile phase (gas or solvent)
is allowed to move slowly over the stationary phase. The components
are separated from one another in pure form.
Q: What is "Carcinogenicity"? Name two compounds cause it.
A: Cancer producing property by fused benzene rings (3 or more), which
are formed due to incomplete combustion of tobacco, coal and
petroleum.
Eg: 1, 2, - Benzpyrene, 1, 2 - Benzanthracene
Inter Second Year Zoology - 2 Marks Important Questions from Unit 4
Q: What is acromegaly? Name the hormone responsible for it.
A: a. Acromegaly is a disorder resulted due to hyper secretion of
somatotropin (of pituitary). It is characterised by elongation of
bones of jaw, limbs, thickened nose, lips, eye lids and wide finger
tips (gorilla like appearance).
b. Somatotropin.
Q: Name the gland that increases in size during childhood and
decreases in size during adulthood. What important role it play in
case of infection?
A: a. Thymus gland
b. It secretes thymosins that are necessary for differentiation of T -
lymphocytes, which provide cell mediated immunity in case of
infections.
Q: Distinguish between diabetes mellitus and diabetes incipidus.
A: a. Diabetes mellitus is caused due to the deficiency of Insulin. It
is characterised by loss of glucose through urine and formation of
ketone bodies.
b. Diabetes incipidus is caused due to the deficiency of vasopressin. It is
characterised by loss of more water through urine.
Q: What are androgens? Which cells secrete them?
A: a. Male sex hormones testosterone are called androgens.
b. Leydig cells of testes.
Q: Define immunity and immune system.
A: a. Ability of the body to resist or eliminate harmful foreign microbes and
their products is known as immunity.
b. The network of organs, cells and proteins that protect the body
from harmful microbes and their products is known as immune system.
Q: Colostrum is very much essential for new born infants. Justify.
A: a. Colostrum is the first milk produced from mother after child birth.
b. It contains antibodies like IgA which provide immunity to the new born.
Q: Explain the mechanism of vaccination or immunisation.
A: Vaccination is the process in which inactivated or weakened
pathogens or antigenic proteins of the pathogen are inoculated into
the body of the host. They initiate the production of appropriate
antibodies in the host.
Q: What are autoimmune disorders? Give two examples..
A: In some cases, our own immune system fails to recognise some of our
own body proteins and treats them as foreign antigens.
Hence the immune system attacks on our own tissues. This leads to
serious diseases called autoimmune disorders.
Q: Differentiate between perforins and granzymes.
A: a. Perforins are the enzymes (produced by cytotoxic T - cells)
which form pores to the cell membranes of infected cells.
b. Granzymes are the enzymes (produced by cytotoxic T - cells) which
enter the infected cells through the pores formed by perforins and
activate certain proteins that destroy the infected cell.
Q: Which hormone is called anti diuretic hormone? Write the name of
the gland that secretes it.
A: a. Vasopressin
b. Neurohypophysis of Pituitary.
A: a. Acromegaly is a disorder resulted due to hyper secretion of
somatotropin (of pituitary). It is characterised by elongation of
bones of jaw, limbs, thickened nose, lips, eye lids and wide finger
tips (gorilla like appearance).
b. Somatotropin.
Q: Name the gland that increases in size during childhood and
decreases in size during adulthood. What important role it play in
case of infection?
A: a. Thymus gland
b. It secretes thymosins that are necessary for differentiation of T -
lymphocytes, which provide cell mediated immunity in case of
infections.
Q: Distinguish between diabetes mellitus and diabetes incipidus.
A: a. Diabetes mellitus is caused due to the deficiency of Insulin. It
is characterised by loss of glucose through urine and formation of
ketone bodies.
b. Diabetes incipidus is caused due to the deficiency of vasopressin. It is
characterised by loss of more water through urine.
Q: What are androgens? Which cells secrete them?
A: a. Male sex hormones testosterone are called androgens.
b. Leydig cells of testes.
Q: Define immunity and immune system.
A: a. Ability of the body to resist or eliminate harmful foreign microbes and
their products is known as immunity.
b. The network of organs, cells and proteins that protect the body
from harmful microbes and their products is known as immune system.
Q: Colostrum is very much essential for new born infants. Justify.
A: a. Colostrum is the first milk produced from mother after child birth.
b. It contains antibodies like IgA which provide immunity to the new born.
Q: Explain the mechanism of vaccination or immunisation.
A: Vaccination is the process in which inactivated or weakened
pathogens or antigenic proteins of the pathogen are inoculated into
the body of the host. They initiate the production of appropriate
antibodies in the host.
Q: What are autoimmune disorders? Give two examples..
A: In some cases, our own immune system fails to recognise some of our
own body proteins and treats them as foreign antigens.
Hence the immune system attacks on our own tissues. This leads to
serious diseases called autoimmune disorders.
Q: Differentiate between perforins and granzymes.
A: a. Perforins are the enzymes (produced by cytotoxic T - cells)
which form pores to the cell membranes of infected cells.
b. Granzymes are the enzymes (produced by cytotoxic T - cells) which
enter the infected cells through the pores formed by perforins and
activate certain proteins that destroy the infected cell.
Q: Which hormone is called anti diuretic hormone? Write the name of
the gland that secretes it.
A: a. Vasopressin
b. Neurohypophysis of Pituitary.
Senior Intermediate Zoology Important Questions for IPE Exams
A: B-Lymphocytes (B-Cells) are the cells that are capable of producing
antibodies and capture the circulating antigens. BCells are produced
from the stem cells in the bone marrow in adults and in foetus from
the liver (from bursa fabricii in birds).
Mature B-cells produce antibodies. As these antibodies take antigens,
these Bcells are called immuno competent Bcells.
Mature B- Cells enter the secondary lymphoid organs and then become
memory cells (long lived and store information about specific antigen
for quick response) and plasma cells (produce antibodies).
Q: Write notes on Addison's disease and Cushing's Syndrome.
A: a. Due to hypo secretion of glucocorticoids by the adrenal cortex,
Addison's Disease is caused.
It is characterised by loss of weight, muscular weakness, fatigue and
low blood pressure. Sometimes bronzening of skin occurs.
b. Due to hyper secretion of glucocorticoids, Cushing's Syndrome
results. It is characterised by the breakdown of muscle proteins and
redistribution of body fat resulting in spindly arms and legs besides
moon face, buffalo hump.
Wound healing is poor. Rapid weight gain may also occur.
Senior Inter Zoology Important Questions - Unit IV
Q: Describe the male and female sex hormones and their actions.
A: a. Male sex hormones are called androgens (e.g., Testosterone).
They are essential for the maturation and functioning of male
accessory sex organs. They regulate the development of muscles, facial
and axillary hair, aggressiveness and low pitch (masculine) voice.
b. Female sex hormones are estrogen and progesterone. Estrogen
promotes the development and activity of the female secondary sex
organs, growth of ovarian follicles, high pitch (feminine) voice;
development of mammary glands. Progesterone prepares the uterus for
receiving and implantation of the blastocyst and inhibits
the contractions of the uterus.
Q: Explain the mechanism by which HIV multiplies and leads to AIDS.
A: a. After infection to a new person, the HIV enters the TH cells,
macrophages and dendric cells.
b. In these cells ssRNA synthesises a new DNA strand complementary to
the viral RNA in presence of reverse transcriptase.
c. Reverse transcriptase catalyses the synthesis of another strand of
DNA and thus a double strand DNA is formed.
d. Then this viral DNA gets incorporated into DNA of the host cell
with help of viral enzyme integrase.
e. Transcribed RNA from this DNA will act as the genome for the new or
it can be transcribed into viral proteins.
f. Now the infected host cells act as HIV generating factories. New
viruses are budded off from the host cell.
g. As a result, progressive decrease in number of TH cells of the
infected \ person leading to immunodeficiency.
h. Attack on certain types of cells or tissues only by viruses, such
as HIV is referred to as tissue tropism.
Q: Write short notes on immunoglobulins.
A: When antigens enter the body, B-Lymphocytes produce immunoglobulins
(antibodies), that bind to the antigens and destroy them. Antibodies
are highly specific.
a. An immunoglobulin consists of four polypeptide chains - Two light
chains (L) and two heavy chains (H). The H - chain and L - chain are
linked by disulphide bonds to form a Y - shaped molecule.
b. The ends of two arms are called variable regions.
c. The distal end of each arm of Y is known as Fab region, which binds
to the antigen.
d. The lower parts of arms are called constant regions (C).
e. The stem of Y is known as Fc region. It binds to the complement
proteins or Fc receptors of cells like phagocytes, mast cells etc.
The part of immunoglobulin that recognises and attached to an antigen
is known as paratope. The portion of antigen that binds to paratope is
known as epitope.
f. Based on the type of heavy chain, antibodies are classified into
five types, viz., IgM, IgG, IgD, IgA and IgE.
g. Antibodies (immunoglobulin) are of two types..
Membrane bound antibodies - present on cell membrane of immunocompetent cells.
Secreted antibodies - circulate in the body fluids.
A: a. Male sex hormones are called androgens (e.g., Testosterone).
They are essential for the maturation and functioning of male
accessory sex organs. They regulate the development of muscles, facial
and axillary hair, aggressiveness and low pitch (masculine) voice.
b. Female sex hormones are estrogen and progesterone. Estrogen
promotes the development and activity of the female secondary sex
organs, growth of ovarian follicles, high pitch (feminine) voice;
development of mammary glands. Progesterone prepares the uterus for
receiving and implantation of the blastocyst and inhibits
the contractions of the uterus.
Q: Explain the mechanism by which HIV multiplies and leads to AIDS.
A: a. After infection to a new person, the HIV enters the TH cells,
macrophages and dendric cells.
b. In these cells ssRNA synthesises a new DNA strand complementary to
the viral RNA in presence of reverse transcriptase.
c. Reverse transcriptase catalyses the synthesis of another strand of
DNA and thus a double strand DNA is formed.
d. Then this viral DNA gets incorporated into DNA of the host cell
with help of viral enzyme integrase.
e. Transcribed RNA from this DNA will act as the genome for the new or
it can be transcribed into viral proteins.
f. Now the infected host cells act as HIV generating factories. New
viruses are budded off from the host cell.
g. As a result, progressive decrease in number of TH cells of the
infected \ person leading to immunodeficiency.
h. Attack on certain types of cells or tissues only by viruses, such
as HIV is referred to as tissue tropism.
Q: Write short notes on immunoglobulins.
A: When antigens enter the body, B-Lymphocytes produce immunoglobulins
(antibodies), that bind to the antigens and destroy them. Antibodies
are highly specific.
a. An immunoglobulin consists of four polypeptide chains - Two light
chains (L) and two heavy chains (H). The H - chain and L - chain are
linked by disulphide bonds to form a Y - shaped molecule.
b. The ends of two arms are called variable regions.
c. The distal end of each arm of Y is known as Fab region, which binds
to the antigen.
d. The lower parts of arms are called constant regions (C).
e. The stem of Y is known as Fc region. It binds to the complement
proteins or Fc receptors of cells like phagocytes, mast cells etc.
The part of immunoglobulin that recognises and attached to an antigen
is known as paratope. The portion of antigen that binds to paratope is
known as epitope.
f. Based on the type of heavy chain, antibodies are classified into
five types, viz., IgM, IgG, IgD, IgA and IgE.
g. Antibodies (immunoglobulin) are of two types..
Membrane bound antibodies - present on cell membrane of immunocompetent cells.
Secreted antibodies - circulate in the body fluids.
NTR University B.Sc Nursing, BPT, B.Sc MLT Web Counseling Schedule - 2015
Candidates are invited to appear for the counseling for admission into
B.Sc., (Nursing) 4 YDC, Bachelor of Physiotherapy (BPT) and B.Sc.,
(Medical Lab Technology) courses offered by NTR University of Health
Sciences as per the schedule given below:
Helpline Centers: Vijayawada, Visakhapatnam, Hyderabad, Tirupati, Warangal.
Certificate Verification Schedule:
B.Sc, Nursing: 17 December 2015 to 20 December 2015.
Dates to Exercise Web Options: 18 December 2015 to 21 December 2015.
BPT: 17 December 2015 to 20 December 2015.
Dates to Exercise Web Options: 18 December 2015 to 21 December 2015.
B.Sc, MLT: 17 December 2015 to 20 December 2015.
Dates to Exercise Web Options: 18 December 2015 to 21 December 2015.
Original Certificates to be produced at the time of counseling:
1. Merit order copy issued by Dr. NTR University of Health Sciences.
2. SSC Certificate.
3. Intermediate or its equivalent examination certificate.
4. Study/ Bonafide certificates from 6th to Intermediate.
5. Permanent Caste certificate in case of BC/SC/ST candidates issued
through e – seva / Me- seva.
6. 10 years residence certificate of either of the parent / candidate
who have not studied in Andhra Pradesh/ Telangana states.
7. Transfer Certificate (TC).
8. Latest Income Certificate issued through e- seva / Me-seva.
9. Any other relevant certificates.
B.Sc., (Nursing) 4 YDC, Bachelor of Physiotherapy (BPT) and B.Sc.,
(Medical Lab Technology) courses offered by NTR University of Health
Sciences as per the schedule given below:
Helpline Centers: Vijayawada, Visakhapatnam, Hyderabad, Tirupati, Warangal.
Certificate Verification Schedule:
B.Sc, Nursing: 17 December 2015 to 20 December 2015.
Dates to Exercise Web Options: 18 December 2015 to 21 December 2015.
BPT: 17 December 2015 to 20 December 2015.
Dates to Exercise Web Options: 18 December 2015 to 21 December 2015.
B.Sc, MLT: 17 December 2015 to 20 December 2015.
Dates to Exercise Web Options: 18 December 2015 to 21 December 2015.
Original Certificates to be produced at the time of counseling:
1. Merit order copy issued by Dr. NTR University of Health Sciences.
2. SSC Certificate.
3. Intermediate or its equivalent examination certificate.
4. Study/ Bonafide certificates from 6th to Intermediate.
5. Permanent Caste certificate in case of BC/SC/ST candidates issued
through e – seva / Me- seva.
6. 10 years residence certificate of either of the parent / candidate
who have not studied in Andhra Pradesh/ Telangana states.
7. Transfer Certificate (TC).
8. Latest Income Certificate issued through e- seva / Me-seva.
9. Any other relevant certificates.
PGRRCDE Osmania University MBA, MCA, PG and Diploma Admissions 2015-16
Prof G. Ram Reddy Center for Distance Education (PGRRCDE), Osmania University (OU), Hyderabad has issued admission notification 2015-16 inviting applications for the following courses:
MBA: Candidates should have qualified in ICET 2015 OR Entrance Test conducted by PGRRCDE, OU.
MCA: Candidates should have qualified in ICET 2015 OR entrance exam of PGRRCDE of OU.
PG Courses: MA (Hindi/ Telugu / Sanskrit / Urdu), English, Philosophy, Sociology, Public Personnel Management, Economics, Political Science, History, Psychology, M.Com, M.Sc Maths / Statistics.
UG Courses: BA, BA Mathematics and Statistics, B.Com General and BBA.
PG Diploma Courses: Mathematics, English Language Teaching, Business Management, Bioinformatics, Computer Applications.
Candidates can obtain application forms from the study centers / admission centers located in Hyderabad, Rangareddy, Nalgonda, Madak, Mahaboobnagar, Adilabad, Nizamabad etc. Last date for the submission of applications is 19 December 2015. For more details, see oucde.ac.in .
MBA: Candidates should have qualified in ICET 2015 OR Entrance Test conducted by PGRRCDE, OU.
MCA: Candidates should have qualified in ICET 2015 OR entrance exam of PGRRCDE of OU.
PG Courses: MA (Hindi/ Telugu / Sanskrit / Urdu), English, Philosophy, Sociology, Public Personnel Management, Economics, Political Science, History, Psychology, M.Com, M.Sc Maths / Statistics.
UG Courses: BA, BA Mathematics and Statistics, B.Com General and BBA.
PG Diploma Courses: Mathematics, English Language Teaching, Business Management, Bioinformatics, Computer Applications.
Candidates can obtain application forms from the study centers / admission centers located in Hyderabad, Rangareddy, Nalgonda, Madak, Mahaboobnagar, Adilabad, Nizamabad etc. Last date for the submission of applications is 19 December 2015. For more details, see oucde.ac.in .
The Knowledge Society Essay Writing Project Contest for School Students - 2015
The Knowledge Society is conducting Project Work Contest on the theme APJ Abdul Kalam for high school students. The project work for middle school and for primary school students is Jawaharlal Nehru and Children and India After Independence respectively.
The students can write Essays in 5 to 15 pages. Last date for the submission of essays is 20th December 2015. For more details, contact at the following phone numbers: 040 - 6555238.
Topics for various classes:
High School Students: APJ Abdul Kalam
Middle School Students: Jawaharlal Nehru and Children
Primary School Students: India After Independence.
The students can write Essays in 5 to 15 pages. Last date for the submission of essays is 20th December 2015. For more details, contact at the following phone numbers: 040 - 6555238.
Topics for various classes:
High School Students: APJ Abdul Kalam
Middle School Students: Jawaharlal Nehru and Children
Primary School Students: India After Independence.
AMS - P Obul Reddy Public School Admission Notification 2016-17
Andhra Mahila Sabha (AMS) P. Obul Reddy Public School, Jubilee Hills, Hyderabad has announced notification for admission into Nursery, LKG and UKG classes for the academic year 2016-17. The application forms can be downloaded from the website of the school at www.amsporps.org . The school is following CBSE curriculum.
The forms are available for download from 13th December to 18th December 2015. Duly filled in application forms along with required documents should be submitted in the school office between 9 AM and 11-30 AM on all working days from 16th December to 19th December 2015.
Application forms for class XI can be downloaded from the website from 8th February 2016 to 14th February 2016. Filled in forms can be submitted from 10th February to 15th February 2016.
For admission to classes I to X is subject to vacancies available. The interested parents / students may contact the school office in the 2ned week of March 2016 for admission into these classes.
The forms are available for download from 13th December to 18th December 2015. Duly filled in application forms along with required documents should be submitted in the school office between 9 AM and 11-30 AM on all working days from 16th December to 19th December 2015.
Application forms for class XI can be downloaded from the website from 8th February 2016 to 14th February 2016. Filled in forms can be submitted from 10th February to 15th February 2016.
For admission to classes I to X is subject to vacancies available. The interested parents / students may contact the school office in the 2ned week of March 2016 for admission into these classes.
Osmania University MA, M.Com and M.Sc - CDE Results of June 2015 Exams
Osmania University, Hyderabad (Telangana State) has announced the results of the following academic examinations of MA, M.Com and M.Sc courses. The examinations for these courses were conducted in June 2015 and the results were announced on 8th December 2015.
1) MA (CDE) Public Admin June-2015
2) MA (CDE) PPM June-2015
3) MA (CDE) Telugu June-2015
4) MA (CDE) English June-2015
5) MA (CDE) Journalism June-2015
6) MA (CDE) Philosophy June-2015
7) MA (CDE) Pol.Science June-2015
8) MA (CDE) Urdu June-2015
9) M.Com (CDE) June-2015
10) MA (CDE) Hindi June-2015
11) M.Sc (CDE) Mathematics June-2015
12) MA (CDE) Sanskrit June-2015
13) M.Sc (CDE) Stastistics June-2015
14) MA (CDE) Economics June-2015
15) MA (CDE) History June-2015
16) MA (CDE) Psychology June-2015
17) MA (CDE) Sociology June-2015
18) MA (CDE) Vedic Astrology June-2015
Students can check the results of these examinations through Osmania University website at www.osmania.ac.in by entering their hall ticket number.
1) MA (CDE) Public Admin June-2015
2) MA (CDE) PPM June-2015
3) MA (CDE) Telugu June-2015
4) MA (CDE) English June-2015
5) MA (CDE) Journalism June-2015
6) MA (CDE) Philosophy June-2015
7) MA (CDE) Pol.Science June-2015
8) MA (CDE) Urdu June-2015
9) M.Com (CDE) June-2015
10) MA (CDE) Hindi June-2015
11) M.Sc (CDE) Mathematics June-2015
12) MA (CDE) Sanskrit June-2015
13) M.Sc (CDE) Stastistics June-2015
14) MA (CDE) Economics June-2015
15) MA (CDE) History June-2015
16) MA (CDE) Psychology June-2015
17) MA (CDE) Sociology June-2015
18) MA (CDE) Vedic Astrology June-2015
Students can check the results of these examinations through Osmania University website at www.osmania.ac.in by entering their hall ticket number.
Telangana SSC - Tenth Class Public Exams Schedule - March 2016
The Government of Telangana State has released the SSC / 10th Class / Tenth Class examinations schedule for the academic year 2015-16. The SSC exams - March 2016 in Telangana will commence from 21st March and will end on 9th April 2016. Following is the subject and date wise schedule:
21 March: First Language Paper -1
22 March: First Language Paper -2
24 March: Second Language
26 March: English -1
28 March: English -2
29 March: Mathematics -1
30 March: Mathematics - 2
31 March: General Science - 1
1 April: General Science Paper - 2
2 April: Social Studies Paper - 1
4 April: Social Studies Paper -2
6 April: Oriental SSC Main Language -1
7 April: Oriental SSC Main Language -2
9 April: SSC Vocational
Students are requested to keep tracking the official website of Department of School Education, Government of Telangana for any changes in the proposed exam dates and schedules.
21 March: First Language Paper -1
22 March: First Language Paper -2
24 March: Second Language
26 March: English -1
28 March: English -2
29 March: Mathematics -1
30 March: Mathematics - 2
31 March: General Science - 1
1 April: General Science Paper - 2
2 April: Social Studies Paper - 1
4 April: Social Studies Paper -2
6 April: Oriental SSC Main Language -1
7 April: Oriental SSC Main Language -2
9 April: SSC Vocational
Students are requested to keep tracking the official website of Department of School Education, Government of Telangana for any changes in the proposed exam dates and schedules.
AP 10th Class Exams Schedule - March 2016 for Regular and Vocations Streams
The Government of Andhra Pradesh has released the SSC / 10th Class examinations schedule for the academic year 2015-16. The SSC exams - March 2016 will commence from 21st March and will end on 9th April 2016. Following is the subject wise schedule:
21 March: First Language Paper -1
22 March: First Language Paper -2
24 March: Second Language
26 March: English -1
28 March: English -2
29 March: Mathematics -1
30 March: Mathematics - 2
31 March: General Science - 1
1 April: General Science Paper - 2
2 April: Social Studies Paper - 1
4 April: Social Studies Paper -2
6 April: Oriental SSC Main Language -1
7 April: Oriental SSC Main Language -2
9 April: SSC Vocational
Students are requested to keep tracking the official website of Department of School Education, Government of Andhra Pradesh for any changes in the exam dates and schedules.
21 March: First Language Paper -1
22 March: First Language Paper -2
24 March: Second Language
26 March: English -1
28 March: English -2
29 March: Mathematics -1
30 March: Mathematics - 2
31 March: General Science - 1
1 April: General Science Paper - 2
2 April: Social Studies Paper - 1
4 April: Social Studies Paper -2
6 April: Oriental SSC Main Language -1
7 April: Oriental SSC Main Language -2
9 April: SSC Vocational
Students are requested to keep tracking the official website of Department of School Education, Government of Andhra Pradesh for any changes in the exam dates and schedules.
NTR University Web Counseling for Nursing, BPT and MLT Admissions 2015-16
Dr NTR University of Health Sciences (NTRUHS), Vijayawada will be conducting web counseling for admission into B.Sc Nursing and Bachelor of Physiotherapy (BPT) for the academic year 2015-16. The web counseling will be conducted for admission into colleges in Telangana and Andhra Pradesh states.
There are 36 BPT colleges in Telangana and AP with 1690 seats and 47 MLT colleges with 2085 seats in both the states. For B.Sc Nursing, there are 204 colleges with 10427 seats for the current academic year.
The applications for these courses will be scrutinized in Hyderabad, Vijayawada, Warangal, Visakhpatnam centers by the concerned universities from 15th December 2015. The NTR University will release counseling schedule.
5214 candidates have applied for B.Sc Nursing course. 1191 candidates have applied for BPS and another 775 candidates applied for MLT course in Telangana and Andhra Pradesh states.
There are 36 BPT colleges in Telangana and AP with 1690 seats and 47 MLT colleges with 2085 seats in both the states. For B.Sc Nursing, there are 204 colleges with 10427 seats for the current academic year.
The applications for these courses will be scrutinized in Hyderabad, Vijayawada, Warangal, Visakhpatnam centers by the concerned universities from 15th December 2015. The NTR University will release counseling schedule.
5214 candidates have applied for B.Sc Nursing course. 1191 candidates have applied for BPS and another 775 candidates applied for MLT course in Telangana and Andhra Pradesh states.
AP Intermediate Second Year Exams Time Table March 2016
Here is the AP Intermediate Second Year examinations time table for the March 2016. The examinations will start from 3rd March and end on 21st March 2016. The practical examinations will be held in February 2016. Following is the theory examinations schedule for IPE March 2016 (Second Year):
AP Inter First Year Exams Latest Time Table
Following is the schedule of Intermediate Public Exams (IPE March 2016) for Junior Intermediate of Board of Intermediate Education, Government of Andhra Pradesh. The First year IPE exams will start from 2nd March and close on 19th March 2016. Following is the detailed schedule:
Chinmaya Vidyalaya Hyderabad LKG Admissions 2016-17
Chinmaya Sishuvihar, under the management of Chinmaya Seva Trust, Hyderabad has issued admission notification for LKG for the academic year 2016-17. The school is also known as Chinmaya Vidyalaya and located at Kundanbagh (Begumpet), Hyderabad.
The application forms will be issued on 12th, 13th and 14th December 2015 between 10 AM and 1 PM in the premises of Chinmaya Vidyalaya. The applicants have to produce photocopy of the Birth Certificate.
Children born on or before 31st March 2013 only eligible for LKG admissions. Age relaxation is not allowed in admissions. For siblings, you need to enclose ID proof of existing student.
Address: Chinmaya Sisuvihar, Sandeepany Kailas, Kundanbagh, Begumpet, Hyderabad. Phone: 040 - 2341 8012.
The application forms will be issued on 12th, 13th and 14th December 2015 between 10 AM and 1 PM in the premises of Chinmaya Vidyalaya. The applicants have to produce photocopy of the Birth Certificate.
Children born on or before 31st March 2013 only eligible for LKG admissions. Age relaxation is not allowed in admissions. For siblings, you need to enclose ID proof of existing student.
Address: Chinmaya Sisuvihar, Sandeepany Kailas, Kundanbagh, Begumpet, Hyderabad. Phone: 040 - 2341 8012.
AS Rao Science Talent Search Exam 2015 - Screening and Final Tests
Dr A S Rao Awards Council will be conducting Screening Test (28th Science Talent Search Exam - STSE) on Sunday, 6th December 2015 from 10 AM to 1 PM for 9th and 10th Class students. This test will have 120 multiple choice questions in 4 subjects: Mathematics, Physics, Chemistry and Biology.
Final Test for those qualified in Screening Test will be conducted on Sunday, 27th December 2015. The final test will have 20 subjective questions, 5 in each of 4 subjects. Students have to write answers in the space provided only.
Syllabus for the test is as rescribed by the Governments of Telangana and Andhra Pradesh for 9th and 10th Classes. The winners of the STSE will get cash awards as mentioned below:
1st Rank: Rs. 25000 (for each class)
2nd Rank: Rs. 15000 (for each class)
3rd Rank: Rs. 10000 (for each class)
Awardees of 9th class will be invited to participate in a Residential Science Workshop, scheduled to be held for 6 days during summer in Hyderabad in April / May 2016. For more details of the examination, see www.asrac.org .
Final Test for those qualified in Screening Test will be conducted on Sunday, 27th December 2015. The final test will have 20 subjective questions, 5 in each of 4 subjects. Students have to write answers in the space provided only.
Syllabus for the test is as rescribed by the Governments of Telangana and Andhra Pradesh for 9th and 10th Classes. The winners of the STSE will get cash awards as mentioned below:
1st Rank: Rs. 25000 (for each class)
2nd Rank: Rs. 15000 (for each class)
3rd Rank: Rs. 10000 (for each class)
Awardees of 9th class will be invited to participate in a Residential Science Workshop, scheduled to be held for 6 days during summer in Hyderabad in April / May 2016. For more details of the examination, see www.asrac.org .
Senior Inter Botany Imp 2 Marks Questions - Mineral Nutrition Chapter
Q: Define Hydroponics.
A: The technique of growing plants in a standard, specific,
nutritional liquid medium or solution without or outside the soil is
called Hydroponics. It was first started by Julius von Sachs. It is
also called soil - less culture or solution culture.
Q: How do you categorize a particular essential element as a macro or
micronutrient?
A: The essential element which is required in large amounts (more than
10 m mole kg-1 of dry matter) and forms a part of the protoplasm is
called macronutrient or Major element. Ex: Mg, Ca
The essential element which is required in less amounts (less than 10
m mole kg-1 of dry matter) is called micro or minor or trace element.
It do not forms a constituent of the protoplasm. Ex: Fd, Zn
Q: Give two examples of essential elements that act as activators for enzymes?
A: Iron - Minor element - Activator for Catalase.
Manganese - Minor element - Activator for IAA Oxidase.
Q: Name the essential mineral elements that play an important role in
photolysis of water?
A: Calcium, Manganese and Chlorine play important role in photolysis
of water. Chlorine is not a mineral element.
Q: Out of the 17 essential elements, which elements are called
non-mineral essential elements?
A: Carbon, Hydrogen, Oxygen are non-mineral, essential macro elements.
They are absorbed in the form of CO2, H2O and O2.
Q: Name 2 amino acids in which sulphur is present?
A: Cysteine, Cystine and Methionine consist Sulphur.
Q: When is an essential element said to be deficient?
A: The concentration of the essential element below which plant growth
is retarded is termed as critical concentration. The element is said
to be deficient when present below the critical concentration.
Q: Name two elements whose deficiency symptoms first appear in young leaves?
A: Deficiency symptoms of Sulphur and Calcium first appear in young
leaves as they are not mobile elements.
Q: Explain the role of pink colour pigment in the root nodules of
legume plants? What is it called?
A: The pink colour pigment protects nitrogenase enzyme from Oxygen. It
is called Leg - haemoglobin. It is an Oxygen scavenger.
Q: Excess Mn in soils leads to deficiency of Ca, Mg and Fe. Justify.
A: Manganese competes with Iron and Magnesium for uptake. Manganese
competes with Magnesium for binding with Enzyme. Manganese inhibits
the translocation of Calcium in the shoot apex. Therefore excess of Mn
in soil leads to the deficiency of Ca, Mg & Fe.
Q: What acts as a reservoir of essential elements for plants? By what
process it is formed?
A: Soil is reservoir of essential elements for plants. They are formed
physical weathering and break down of rocks.
Q: Which element is regarded as the 17th essential element? Name a
disease caused by its deficiency?
A: Nickel is the 17th essential element.
The physiological disease caused by its deficiency is Mouse ear in Barley.
Q: Nitrogen fixation is shown by prokaryotes only. Why not by eukaryotes?
A: The enzyme, Nitrogenase or Dinitrogenase which can reduce
atmospheric molecular nitrogen to ammonia is present in certain
prokaryotes only.
Ex: Nostoc, Anabaena (Blue green algae), Rhizobium (Bacteria). So
prokaryotes alone fix nitrogen. As eukaryotes do not have this
enzyme they can not fix nitrogen.
Q: Give an example for each of the aerobic and anaerobic nitrogen
fixing prokaryotes?
A: Aerobic ... Azotobacter, Beijernickia; Anaerobic - Rhodosphirillum.
Q: Non- legume plants also form root nodules. Justify.
A: Frankia, a microbe produces root nodules in non- legume called Alnus.
Q: Name the essential elements present in nitrogenase enzyme? What
type of essential elements are they?
A: Iron and Molybdenum. These two are micro mineral essential elements.
Q: How many ATPs of energy is required to fix one molecule of
atmospheric nitrogen by biological mode? What is the source of that
energy?
A: 16 ATPs are required to fix one molecule of atmospheric nitrogen by
biological mode. The source of this energy is respiration of host
cells.
A: The technique of growing plants in a standard, specific,
nutritional liquid medium or solution without or outside the soil is
called Hydroponics. It was first started by Julius von Sachs. It is
also called soil - less culture or solution culture.
Q: How do you categorize a particular essential element as a macro or
micronutrient?
A: The essential element which is required in large amounts (more than
10 m mole kg-1 of dry matter) and forms a part of the protoplasm is
called macronutrient or Major element. Ex: Mg, Ca
The essential element which is required in less amounts (less than 10
m mole kg-1 of dry matter) is called micro or minor or trace element.
It do not forms a constituent of the protoplasm. Ex: Fd, Zn
Q: Give two examples of essential elements that act as activators for enzymes?
A: Iron - Minor element - Activator for Catalase.
Manganese - Minor element - Activator for IAA Oxidase.
Q: Name the essential mineral elements that play an important role in
photolysis of water?
A: Calcium, Manganese and Chlorine play important role in photolysis
of water. Chlorine is not a mineral element.
Q: Out of the 17 essential elements, which elements are called
non-mineral essential elements?
A: Carbon, Hydrogen, Oxygen are non-mineral, essential macro elements.
They are absorbed in the form of CO2, H2O and O2.
Q: Name 2 amino acids in which sulphur is present?
A: Cysteine, Cystine and Methionine consist Sulphur.
Q: When is an essential element said to be deficient?
A: The concentration of the essential element below which plant growth
is retarded is termed as critical concentration. The element is said
to be deficient when present below the critical concentration.
Q: Name two elements whose deficiency symptoms first appear in young leaves?
A: Deficiency symptoms of Sulphur and Calcium first appear in young
leaves as they are not mobile elements.
Q: Explain the role of pink colour pigment in the root nodules of
legume plants? What is it called?
A: The pink colour pigment protects nitrogenase enzyme from Oxygen. It
is called Leg - haemoglobin. It is an Oxygen scavenger.
Q: Excess Mn in soils leads to deficiency of Ca, Mg and Fe. Justify.
A: Manganese competes with Iron and Magnesium for uptake. Manganese
competes with Magnesium for binding with Enzyme. Manganese inhibits
the translocation of Calcium in the shoot apex. Therefore excess of Mn
in soil leads to the deficiency of Ca, Mg & Fe.
Q: What acts as a reservoir of essential elements for plants? By what
process it is formed?
A: Soil is reservoir of essential elements for plants. They are formed
physical weathering and break down of rocks.
Q: Which element is regarded as the 17th essential element? Name a
disease caused by its deficiency?
A: Nickel is the 17th essential element.
The physiological disease caused by its deficiency is Mouse ear in Barley.
Q: Nitrogen fixation is shown by prokaryotes only. Why not by eukaryotes?
A: The enzyme, Nitrogenase or Dinitrogenase which can reduce
atmospheric molecular nitrogen to ammonia is present in certain
prokaryotes only.
Ex: Nostoc, Anabaena (Blue green algae), Rhizobium (Bacteria). So
prokaryotes alone fix nitrogen. As eukaryotes do not have this
enzyme they can not fix nitrogen.
Q: Give an example for each of the aerobic and anaerobic nitrogen
fixing prokaryotes?
A: Aerobic ... Azotobacter, Beijernickia; Anaerobic - Rhodosphirillum.
Q: Non- legume plants also form root nodules. Justify.
A: Frankia, a microbe produces root nodules in non- legume called Alnus.
Q: Name the essential elements present in nitrogenase enzyme? What
type of essential elements are they?
A: Iron and Molybdenum. These two are micro mineral essential elements.
Q: How many ATPs of energy is required to fix one molecule of
atmospheric nitrogen by biological mode? What is the source of that
energy?
A: 16 ATPs are required to fix one molecule of atmospheric nitrogen by
biological mode. The source of this energy is respiration of host
cells.
Senior Inter Botany 4 Marks Imp Questions - Mineral Nutrition
Q: What will happen if a healthy plant is supplied with excess
essential elements.
A: If excess of Nitrogen is supplied to a healthy plant, its
Vegetative growth is more but reproductive growth is inhibited. It
results in poor yield.
Moderate increase in the concentration of micronutrients causes toxicity.
Any mineral ion concentration in tissues that reduces dry weight of
tissues by about 10% is considered toxic.
Excess of one element may inhibit the uptake of another element.
Excess of Manganese shows Brown spots in the leaf surrounded by
chlorotic veins. Excess of Manganese competes with other micro
elements (Fe, Ca and Mg) and inhibits their uptake. So symptoms of Mn
toxicity
also results in the deficiency symptoms of Fe, Ca and Mg.
Q: Explain the steps involved in the formation of root nodule?
A: The following steps are observed in the formation of root nodule:
1) Bacteria are attracted by sugars, amino acids and flavonoids
secreted by the roots of leguminous plants.
2) Legumes select compatible strains of Rhizobium by specific proteins
called Lectins.
3) Bacteria multiply and secrete curling factor. Root hair shows
curling which is called Shepherd's crook.
4) Bacteria invade the root hair and produce cellulase, pectinase to
digest the cell wall.
5) Bacteria breach the cell wall. Plasma membrane invagination forms
infection thread and carries bacteria into cortical cell.
6) Cortical cells produce Auxins, multiply and root nodule is formed
into which bacteria are released.
7) Bacteria also stimulate pericycle cells to divide.
8) The nodule develops vascular connection.
9) It consists Leghaemoglobin (Pink coloured), Nitrogenase. The
bacterial cells in the nodule become spherical & called bacteroid.
essential elements.
A: If excess of Nitrogen is supplied to a healthy plant, its
Vegetative growth is more but reproductive growth is inhibited. It
results in poor yield.
Moderate increase in the concentration of micronutrients causes toxicity.
Any mineral ion concentration in tissues that reduces dry weight of
tissues by about 10% is considered toxic.
Excess of one element may inhibit the uptake of another element.
Excess of Manganese shows Brown spots in the leaf surrounded by
chlorotic veins. Excess of Manganese competes with other micro
elements (Fe, Ca and Mg) and inhibits their uptake. So symptoms of Mn
toxicity
also results in the deficiency symptoms of Fe, Ca and Mg.
Q: Explain the steps involved in the formation of root nodule?
A: The following steps are observed in the formation of root nodule:
1) Bacteria are attracted by sugars, amino acids and flavonoids
secreted by the roots of leguminous plants.
2) Legumes select compatible strains of Rhizobium by specific proteins
called Lectins.
3) Bacteria multiply and secrete curling factor. Root hair shows
curling which is called Shepherd's crook.
4) Bacteria invade the root hair and produce cellulase, pectinase to
digest the cell wall.
5) Bacteria breach the cell wall. Plasma membrane invagination forms
infection thread and carries bacteria into cortical cell.
6) Cortical cells produce Auxins, multiply and root nodule is formed
into which bacteria are released.
7) Bacteria also stimulate pericycle cells to divide.
8) The nodule develops vascular connection.
9) It consists Leghaemoglobin (Pink coloured), Nitrogenase. The
bacterial cells in the nodule become spherical & called bacteroid.
Senior Inter Botany Important Questions - Mineral Nutrition - 4 Marks
Q: 'All elements that are present in a plant need not be essential for
its survival'. Justify.
A: Plants absorb 60 or even more mineral elements from the soil. All
60 are not present in one plant. In the same way all elements present
in a plant are useful to it. Only the useful elements are called
essential elements.
Q: Name at least five different deficiency symptoms in plants.
Describe them, and correlate them with concerned mineral deficiency.
A: Deficiency symptoms of
1. Zinc:
1) Little leaf disease
2) Leaf rosette
3) Mottled leaf
4) Interveinal Chlorosis - Necrosis
Zinc is a mobile, micro mineral essential element. It is an activator
for Carboxylase. It is needed for the synthesis of Auxins. It is
absorbed in the form of Zn2+.
2. Copper:
1) Die back disease of shoots in Citrus
2) Necrosis of young leaf tips
3) Exanthema
4) Reclamation disease of cereals and legumes
5) Blackening Potato tubers
3. Boron:
1) Heart rot in beets (Brown heart)
2) Water core in turnip
3) Heart rot in carrot
4) Fibres in apple fruit
5) Death of root tip and stem tip
4. Molybdenum:
1) Whiptail disease in Cauliflower
2) Interveinal Chlorosis
3) Inhibition of flowering
4) Mottled Chlorosis
5) Upper half leaf shows withering
5. Chlorine:
1) Bronzing in legumes
2) Flower abseision
3) Swollen root tips
Q: Some angiospermic plants adapted to absorb molecular nitrogen from
atmosphere. Explain, citing two examples.
A: Leguminaceae members and some plants like Myrica, Alnus, Casuarina
have adapted to absorb molecular nitrogen with the help of bacteria.
It occurs through symbiotic nitrogen fixation.
Rhizobium fixes molecular nitrogen to Legumes, and also to a
non-leguminous member called Parasponia.
Filamentous, Actinomycetus bacteria like Frankia fixes atmospheric
molecular nitrogen in Alnus, Casuarina and Myrica.
Nostoc fixes nitrogen in the stem glands of Gunnera.
Azospirillum, an associated symbiont fixes nitrogen in Maize, Sorghum,
Wheat, Barley and Finger millets.
its survival'. Justify.
A: Plants absorb 60 or even more mineral elements from the soil. All
60 are not present in one plant. In the same way all elements present
in a plant are useful to it. Only the useful elements are called
essential elements.
Q: Name at least five different deficiency symptoms in plants.
Describe them, and correlate them with concerned mineral deficiency.
A: Deficiency symptoms of
1. Zinc:
1) Little leaf disease
2) Leaf rosette
3) Mottled leaf
4) Interveinal Chlorosis - Necrosis
Zinc is a mobile, micro mineral essential element. It is an activator
for Carboxylase. It is needed for the synthesis of Auxins. It is
absorbed in the form of Zn2+.
2. Copper:
1) Die back disease of shoots in Citrus
2) Necrosis of young leaf tips
3) Exanthema
4) Reclamation disease of cereals and legumes
5) Blackening Potato tubers
3. Boron:
1) Heart rot in beets (Brown heart)
2) Water core in turnip
3) Heart rot in carrot
4) Fibres in apple fruit
5) Death of root tip and stem tip
4. Molybdenum:
1) Whiptail disease in Cauliflower
2) Interveinal Chlorosis
3) Inhibition of flowering
4) Mottled Chlorosis
5) Upper half leaf shows withering
5. Chlorine:
1) Bronzing in legumes
2) Flower abseision
3) Swollen root tips
Q: Some angiospermic plants adapted to absorb molecular nitrogen from
atmosphere. Explain, citing two examples.
A: Leguminaceae members and some plants like Myrica, Alnus, Casuarina
have adapted to absorb molecular nitrogen with the help of bacteria.
It occurs through symbiotic nitrogen fixation.
Rhizobium fixes molecular nitrogen to Legumes, and also to a
non-leguminous member called Parasponia.
Filamentous, Actinomycetus bacteria like Frankia fixes atmospheric
molecular nitrogen in Alnus, Casuarina and Myrica.
Nostoc fixes nitrogen in the stem glands of Gunnera.
Azospirillum, an associated symbiont fixes nitrogen in Maize, Sorghum,
Wheat, Barley and Finger millets.
Senior Inter Physics Important Questions - Wave Optics
Q: Explain Doppler effect in light. Distinguish between Red Shift and
Blue Shift. (4 marks)
A: Doppler effect in light:
To an observer on the earth light from a star moving towards him
appears with high frequency or less wavelength. Similarly the apparent
wavelength of light received by the observer is high in the case of
star moving away from him.
This change in apparent frequency or wavelength of light due to
relative motion between light source and observer is called Doppler
effect in light.
Red Shift: When light source is moving away from an observer, the
frequency of light seen by the observer is less than the frequency of
light emitted by the source (or) the apparent wavelength is more than
the wavelength of light emitted by the source i.e., apparent
wavelength shifts towards the red end of the visible spectrum.
Blue Shift: When a light source is approaching an observer the
apparent frequency of light seen by the observer is more than the
frequency of light emitted from the source (or) the apparent
wavelength decreases i.e. shifts towards the blue end of the visible
spectrum.
Q: Explain Brewster's law. (2 marks)
A: When unpolarised light is incident on transparent surface, at a
particular angle of incidence called Brewster angle (or) polarizing
angle (ip), the reflected light wave is totally polarised and is
perpendicular to the refracted
light wave. The tangent of the angle of polarization is numerically
equal to the refractive index (ì) of the refracting medium.
ì = tan (ip)
Q: What is the shape of wavefront is each of the following cases
(a) Light diverging from point source.
(b) Light emerging out of a convex lens when a point source is placed
at its focus.
(c) The portion of wavefront of light from a distance star intercepted
by the earth. (2 marks)
A: (a) Shape of wavefront is spherical
(b) Shape of wavefront is plane.
(c) Shape of wavefront is plane.
Blue Shift. (4 marks)
A: Doppler effect in light:
To an observer on the earth light from a star moving towards him
appears with high frequency or less wavelength. Similarly the apparent
wavelength of light received by the observer is high in the case of
star moving away from him.
This change in apparent frequency or wavelength of light due to
relative motion between light source and observer is called Doppler
effect in light.
Red Shift: When light source is moving away from an observer, the
frequency of light seen by the observer is less than the frequency of
light emitted by the source (or) the apparent wavelength is more than
the wavelength of light emitted by the source i.e., apparent
wavelength shifts towards the red end of the visible spectrum.
Blue Shift: When a light source is approaching an observer the
apparent frequency of light seen by the observer is more than the
frequency of light emitted from the source (or) the apparent
wavelength decreases i.e. shifts towards the blue end of the visible
spectrum.
Q: Explain Brewster's law. (2 marks)
A: When unpolarised light is incident on transparent surface, at a
particular angle of incidence called Brewster angle (or) polarizing
angle (ip), the reflected light wave is totally polarised and is
perpendicular to the refracted
light wave. The tangent of the angle of polarization is numerically
equal to the refractive index (ì) of the refracting medium.
ì = tan (ip)
Q: What is the shape of wavefront is each of the following cases
(a) Light diverging from point source.
(b) Light emerging out of a convex lens when a point source is placed
at its focus.
(c) The portion of wavefront of light from a distance star intercepted
by the earth. (2 marks)
A: (a) Shape of wavefront is spherical
(b) Shape of wavefront is plane.
(c) Shape of wavefront is plane.
Junior Inter Zoology Unit V - Important 4 Marks Question
Q: What are lateral appendages of flagellae? Based on their presence or absence, write various types of flagellae giving at least one example for each type.
A: a. Some types of flagellae have one or more rows of short, lateral appendages called mastigonemes and flimmers.
b. Based on the occurrence of the lateral appendages, flagellae are classified into the following five types:
1. Stichonematic: One row of lateral appendages on axoneme. Ex: Euglena
2. Pantonematic: Two or more rows of lateral appendages on
axoneme. Ex: Monax
3. Acronematic: Lateral appendages are absent. But axoneme is bare
at the tip. Ex: Polytoma
4. Pantacronematic: Axoneme has two or more rows of lateral
appendages and axoneme is bare at the tip. Ex: Urceolus
5. Anematic: Lateral appendages are absent. Axoneme is sheathed entire length. Ex: Chilomonas.
A: a. Some types of flagellae have one or more rows of short, lateral appendages called mastigonemes and flimmers.
b. Based on the occurrence of the lateral appendages, flagellae are classified into the following five types:
1. Stichonematic: One row of lateral appendages on axoneme. Ex: Euglena
2. Pantonematic: Two or more rows of lateral appendages on
axoneme. Ex: Monax
3. Acronematic: Lateral appendages are absent. But axoneme is bare
at the tip. Ex: Polytoma
4. Pantacronematic: Axoneme has two or more rows of lateral
appendages and axoneme is bare at the tip. Ex: Urceolus
5. Anematic: Lateral appendages are absent. Axoneme is sheathed entire length. Ex: Chilomonas.
Inter First Year Zoology Unit V Important Questions for 2 Marks
Q: List out any two differences between a flagellum and a cilium.
A:
Flagellum:
a. It is a long and whip like structure.
b. Flagellae generally originate in the anterior part of the body.
c. flagellae exhibit undular movements.
Cilium:
a. It is a short and hair like structure.
b. Cilia are present all over the body or confined to peristome only.
c. Cilia exhibit pendular movements.
Q: Draw a labelled diagram of T. S. of flagellum.
A:
A:
Flagellum:
a. It is a long and whip like structure.
b. Flagellae generally originate in the anterior part of the body.
c. flagellae exhibit undular movements.
Cilium:
a. It is a short and hair like structure.
b. Cilia are present all over the body or confined to peristome only.
c. Cilia exhibit pendular movements.
Q: Draw a labelled diagram of T. S. of flagellum.
A:
Inter First Year Zoology 2 Marks Important Questions - Unit V
Q: What is a kinety?
A: In ciliate protozoans, a row of kinetosomes along with kinetodesmata constitute a kinety. It lies just below the pellicle.
Q: What are dynein arms? What is their significance?
A: a. Each A tubule of the each peripheral tubule of flagellum has a pair of arms,
known as dynein arms. They extend towards B tubule of the adjacent doublet.
b. Dynein arms help in bending of flagellum.
Q: Differentiate proter and opisthe.
A: During binary fission in Paramecium, the daughter individual formed from the anterior
half of the parent is called proter and that is formed from the posterior part is
known as opisthe.
Q: Define conjugation with reference to ciliates. Give two examples.
A: Temporary union of two ciliates for the exchange of micronuclear material is
known as conjugation. Eg: Paramecium, Vorticella.
Q: Why do we refer to the offspring formed by asexual method of reproduction, a
clone?
A: As the daughter individuals formed by asexual reproduction are morphologically
as well as genetically similar to that of the parent organism, they are described as
a clone.
A: In ciliate protozoans, a row of kinetosomes along with kinetodesmata constitute a kinety. It lies just below the pellicle.
Q: What are dynein arms? What is their significance?
A: a. Each A tubule of the each peripheral tubule of flagellum has a pair of arms,
known as dynein arms. They extend towards B tubule of the adjacent doublet.
b. Dynein arms help in bending of flagellum.
Q: Differentiate proter and opisthe.
A: During binary fission in Paramecium, the daughter individual formed from the anterior
half of the parent is called proter and that is formed from the posterior part is
known as opisthe.
Q: Define conjugation with reference to ciliates. Give two examples.
A: Temporary union of two ciliates for the exchange of micronuclear material is
known as conjugation. Eg: Paramecium, Vorticella.
Q: Why do we refer to the offspring formed by asexual method of reproduction, a
clone?
A: As the daughter individuals formed by asexual reproduction are morphologically
as well as genetically similar to that of the parent organism, they are described as
a clone.
Junior Intermediate Zoology Unit - V Important Questions for 4 Marks
Q: Describe the process of longitudinal binary fission in Euglena.
A: Longitudinal binary fission takes place in Euglena during favourable conditions.
The division of nucleus during binary fission is known as karyokinesis and that of cytoplasm is called cytokinesis.
Euglena is a common protozoan in fresh water bodies and is green in colour due to
presence of chromatophores containing chlorophyll. Euglena is a spindle shaped individual having two flagellae in the anterior end arising from two basal granules
besides cytostome, cytopharynx, reservoir, contractile vacuole, stigma, paraflagellar
body etc. Almost in the middle of the body, there is a nucleus.
a. During binary fission, nucleus divides by mitosis.
b. Then the basal granules and chromatophores also divide.
c. A constriction appears in the anterior end, grow deep dividing the parent Euglena into two daughter Euglenae.
d. The basal granules and flagellae are retained by one daughter and the other acquires new flagellae from the newly formed basal granules.
e. Stigma, paraflagellar body and contractile vacuole of the parent disappear and new
structures are formed in both daughter Euglenae.
f. As the daughter Euglenae formed after longitudinal binary fission are like mirror
images, the binary fission in Euglena is also called symmetrogenic division.
Q: Write short notes on multiple fission.
A: Division of the parent individual into many daughter individuals is known as multiple fission. Generally, multiple fission takes place during unfavourable conditions. In multiple fission, nucleus of the parent individual divides many times by mitosis. Thus many nuclei are formed. Each nucleus is surrounded by a bit of cytoplasm and thus many small daughter individuals are formed. When the body covering of the parent ruptures, all the daughter individuals are liberated out and each one develops into a complete organism.
Eg: Multiple fission in Plasmodium is described as schizogony, male gametogony
and sporogony.
Multiple fission in Amoeba is known as sporulation.
Q: Draw neat labelled diagram of Euglena.
A:
A: Longitudinal binary fission takes place in Euglena during favourable conditions.
The division of nucleus during binary fission is known as karyokinesis and that of cytoplasm is called cytokinesis.
Euglena is a common protozoan in fresh water bodies and is green in colour due to
presence of chromatophores containing chlorophyll. Euglena is a spindle shaped individual having two flagellae in the anterior end arising from two basal granules
besides cytostome, cytopharynx, reservoir, contractile vacuole, stigma, paraflagellar
body etc. Almost in the middle of the body, there is a nucleus.
a. During binary fission, nucleus divides by mitosis.
b. Then the basal granules and chromatophores also divide.
c. A constriction appears in the anterior end, grow deep dividing the parent Euglena into two daughter Euglenae.
d. The basal granules and flagellae are retained by one daughter and the other acquires new flagellae from the newly formed basal granules.
e. Stigma, paraflagellar body and contractile vacuole of the parent disappear and new
structures are formed in both daughter Euglenae.
f. As the daughter Euglenae formed after longitudinal binary fission are like mirror
images, the binary fission in Euglena is also called symmetrogenic division.
Q: Write short notes on multiple fission.
A: Division of the parent individual into many daughter individuals is known as multiple fission. Generally, multiple fission takes place during unfavourable conditions. In multiple fission, nucleus of the parent individual divides many times by mitosis. Thus many nuclei are formed. Each nucleus is surrounded by a bit of cytoplasm and thus many small daughter individuals are formed. When the body covering of the parent ruptures, all the daughter individuals are liberated out and each one develops into a complete organism.
Eg: Multiple fission in Plasmodium is described as schizogony, male gametogony
and sporogony.
Multiple fission in Amoeba is known as sporulation.
Q: Draw neat labelled diagram of Euglena.
A:
Junior Inter Zoology - Important 4 Marks Questions for IPE Exams
Q: Draw labelled diagram of Paramecium.
A:
Q: Describe the process of transverse binary fission in Paramecium.
A: Transverse binary fission takes place in Paramecium during favourable conditions.
The division of nucleus during binary fission is known as karyokinesis and that of
cytoplasm is called cytokinesis.
Paramecium is commonly called slipper animalcule and is a common protozoan in fresh water bodies. It has an oral groove, cytostome and cytopharynx on the oral surface,
besides two contractile vacuoles (one in the anterior part and the other in the posterior part). There are two nuclei, viz., macronucleus (large, bean shaped, polyploid) and a micronucleus (small, round, diploid). Body is covered by pellicle, below which infra ciliary system and trichocysts are present. Cilia are present all over the body.
During binary fission, Paramecium stops feeding. Then micronucleus divides by mitosis and macronucleus by amitosis. Oral groove disappears. Now a constriction appears in the middle, grow deep and divides the parent Paramecium into two daughter Paramecia. The daughter formed from the anterior half of the parent is called proter and that is formed from the posterior part is called opisthe. Proter receives the cytostome and cytopharynx and anterior contractile vacuole of the parent. Opisthe receives the posterior contractile vacuole of the parent. Proter develops a new oral groove, and a contractile vacuole in the posterior part. Opisthe develops an oral groove, cytostome and cytopharynx, and a contractile vacuole in the posterior part.
Transverse binary fission in Paramecium is called homothetogenic fission because, the
plane of fission is at right angles to the long axis of the body. The fission is also called perikinetal fission because it occurs at right angles to the kineties.
If conditions are favourable, binary fission is completed in about two hours and
Paramecium can produce about four generations of daughter Paramecia in a day.
A:
Q: Describe the process of transverse binary fission in Paramecium.
A: Transverse binary fission takes place in Paramecium during favourable conditions.
The division of nucleus during binary fission is known as karyokinesis and that of
cytoplasm is called cytokinesis.
Paramecium is commonly called slipper animalcule and is a common protozoan in fresh water bodies. It has an oral groove, cytostome and cytopharynx on the oral surface,
besides two contractile vacuoles (one in the anterior part and the other in the posterior part). There are two nuclei, viz., macronucleus (large, bean shaped, polyploid) and a micronucleus (small, round, diploid). Body is covered by pellicle, below which infra ciliary system and trichocysts are present. Cilia are present all over the body.
During binary fission, Paramecium stops feeding. Then micronucleus divides by mitosis and macronucleus by amitosis. Oral groove disappears. Now a constriction appears in the middle, grow deep and divides the parent Paramecium into two daughter Paramecia. The daughter formed from the anterior half of the parent is called proter and that is formed from the posterior part is called opisthe. Proter receives the cytostome and cytopharynx and anterior contractile vacuole of the parent. Opisthe receives the posterior contractile vacuole of the parent. Proter develops a new oral groove, and a contractile vacuole in the posterior part. Opisthe develops an oral groove, cytostome and cytopharynx, and a contractile vacuole in the posterior part.
Transverse binary fission in Paramecium is called homothetogenic fission because, the
plane of fission is at right angles to the long axis of the body. The fission is also called perikinetal fission because it occurs at right angles to the kineties.
If conditions are favourable, binary fission is completed in about two hours and
Paramecium can produce about four generations of daughter Paramecia in a day.
Telangana SSC Board 10th Class Exams Time Table - March 2016
The Department of School Education, Government of Telangana will be releasing SSC / 10th Class Exams Time Table - March 2016. The exams are likely to be held from 21st March to 9th April 2016. About 5 lakhs students are going to appear for SSC / 10th class exams in Telangana. Following are the details of date wise exams:
March 21: First Language Paper 1
March 22: First Language Paper 2
March 24: Second Language
March 26: English Paper 1
March 28: English Paper 2
March 29: Mathematics Paper 1
March 30: Mathematics Paper 2
March 31: General Science Paper 1
April 1: General Science Paper 2
April 2: Social Studies Paper 1
April 4: Social Studies Paper 2
April 6: Oriental SSC Main Language Paper 1
April 7: Oriental SSC Main Language Paper 2
April 9: SSC Vocational Exam
The SSC / Tenth Class in Andhra Pradesh also starts on 21st March and end on 7th April 2016. The Telangana Government will issue the schedule officially on 3rd December 2015.
March 21: First Language Paper 1
March 22: First Language Paper 2
March 24: Second Language
March 26: English Paper 1
March 28: English Paper 2
March 29: Mathematics Paper 1
March 30: Mathematics Paper 2
March 31: General Science Paper 1
April 1: General Science Paper 2
April 2: Social Studies Paper 1
April 4: Social Studies Paper 2
April 6: Oriental SSC Main Language Paper 1
April 7: Oriental SSC Main Language Paper 2
April 9: SSC Vocational Exam
The SSC / Tenth Class in Andhra Pradesh also starts on 21st March and end on 7th April 2016. The Telangana Government will issue the schedule officially on 3rd December 2015.
Dravidian University DURCET 2015 Last Date Extended
Dravidian University (DU), Kuppam, Chittoor district (Andhra Pradesh) has informed that the last date for the submission of applications for DURCET 2015 (Dravidian University Research Common Entrance Test) has been extended till 5th December 2015.
The DURCET is being conducted for admission into M.Phil and Ph.D courses for the academic year 2015-16. The Ph.D and M.Phil courses are offered in 18 disciplines and there are 149 Ph.D seats and 147 M.Phil seats in DU.
The original last date for the applications submission is 30th December 2015. About 500 candidates have applied for the Ph.D and M.Phil till date. The interested candidates can now apply till 5th December 2015. For more details, see the website of the university.
The DURCET is being conducted for admission into M.Phil and Ph.D courses for the academic year 2015-16. The Ph.D and M.Phil courses are offered in 18 disciplines and there are 149 Ph.D seats and 147 M.Phil seats in DU.
The original last date for the applications submission is 30th December 2015. About 500 candidates have applied for the Ph.D and M.Phil till date. The interested candidates can now apply till 5th December 2015. For more details, see the website of the university.
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